In the iSteve comments, AnotherDad responds to an anonymous question:
“Slightly OT: why don’t South Asians see themselves as a race?”
Because they aren’t a race, but something like 40,000 microraces.
If you at those genetic principal component analysis plots of world populations this pops out. For some nations or at least regions in large nations, the people are a composite of a couple or a few components, but most everyone in the nation has pretty much the same components in pretty much the same proportions. I.e. there really is an “English race”.
Not so the Indians, even in a single state people–i.e. from separate “communities”–are a smattering of five or six different components in wildly varying proportions.
South Asians are actually kind of like what SJWs in comment sections are always contending blacks are: so incredibly diverse that to call them a race is absurd.
On the other hand, you can usually guess that a South Asian is a South Asian from facial features, even if they vary widely in skin color. Pakistani prime minister and cricket star Imran Khan, whom I always pointing out looks like a taller Mark Wahlberg, is a rare South Asian who doesn’t look South Asian. He’s the exception that proves the rule.
By the way, that reminds me that I use the phrase “on the other hand” rather a lot:
On the other hand, I apparently use the phrase “by the way” even more:
Yet, I apparently don’t say the “exception that proves the rule” very often even though it’s one of my favorite phrases.
Many years ago I got into squabble with Judge Richard Posner over the phrase, which he objected to on the grounds that it is self-evidently illogical. My view is that if a person is famous for being exceptional, that suggests something about what is typical for the group. For example, Beethoven is famous for having been a deaf great composer, which implies that being a deaf great composer is unusual. Granted, many current day composers argue that the respect ordinary people pay Beethoven for having composed, say, his Ninth Symphony while deaf is unwarranted because, if they happened to be deaf, they could compose while deaf too. On the other hand, they haven’t composed the Ninth Symphony while not deaf, so I’m not sure how much weight to give their arguments.