RSSTry "self sealing" so it won't upset your delicate sensibility.
And why the use of the phrase ‘self-healing’? Is the rock magic now? Does the concrete chant on the misty night of Samhain?
Hot dip galvanizing steel can be said to be “self-healing”. The term used in that case is “sacrificial protection”. You can google that to read about it. When zinc corrodes it actually protects the steel underneath from corroding. Steel is “cathodic” in relation to zinc.
I've previously seen an analogous problem - 1000^1000 cf 1001^999 - which requires slightly more thought to get right using only BOTE-type reasoning. It helps to have committed to memory a bunch of inequalities of the type that every competent Maths kiddie picks up before they finish high school. As always the trick is to know which one. In this case it helps to know that
Which is greater, 1000^1001 or 1001^1000?
Then examining whether the ratio (1001^999)/(1000^1000) is less than 1 by trying to get it into a form with a term of the form (1+1/n)^n .The end result is (1+1/1000)^1000 × 1/1001 - which is strictly less than 3/1001 ∎I guess the Twatter guy thought that increasing the exponents by 1 makes it an original work.Of much greater import, is that I have never managed to get LaTeX or MathML to work in the Unzosphere, which is annoying because trying to type Maths in plaintext results in retarded gibberish (at least, when I'm in charge).I know it can be done: erstwhile contributor Raches mentioned it in one of his columns.Not being able to put Maths in comments is like the Holocaust - except 50,000 times worse.Replies: @blake121666
2 ≤ (1 + 1/n)^n < 3 ∀ n ∈ ℤ+
Yes, it is a variation on Euler’s derivation of e that one gets in analyses 1.
To generalize this particular problem, the question of whether (N+m)^N is greater than N^(N+m) where (N,m) are integers and |N| >> |m| is to simply consider the equation
(N+m)^N = c * N^(N+m)
The one is bigger than the other depending on whether c is less than or greater than 1. But c is of course:
(1 + m/N)^N / N^m
This is a monotonically increasing function whose zero involves e^m (the limit of (1+m/N)^N as N -> infinity)
So you’ll end up with a result involving e^m for c – and hence the conditions under which the one expression is greater than the other.
In general, the larger exponential term is bigger for any reasonably large N. Anyone who has seen these type problems will just assume that.
As a reply here to another comment I mentioned Nio’s “battery swap” architecture. Look it up. No problemo to simply swap batteries in a mostly automated type way. No need for the end-user to have to charge batteries if he doesn’t want to – just swap the old one out for a fresh one.
Not sure if you mean "charging stations" or "power plants" but neither one will do squat to fix the problem of charging infrastructure.
Maybe power stations at the place of former common gas stations will be the solution for EV´s anyway.
Nio has largely automated “battery swap” stations. Look it up, it’s quite interesting.
They might be Lithuanian! I grew up in Baltimore City and while I had to search the area in google maps to precisely place it, I see that the 200 block of Park Ave is by St Alphonsus – a Lithuanian church I remember. That area used to be Lithuanians – who curiously decided on Baltimore for their emigration. We had an unusually large number of Lithuanians in Baltimore. Some of my best friends were Lithuanian. And went to St Alphonsus as a matter of fact. They were one of the last churches with a Latin mass.
I doubt the people in this article were Latin mass churchgoers (or Lithunian of course, lol)!
Kinda weird to reply to my own comment but it appears I was quite wrong. Jefferson had Anglo Saxons in his lineage. I must have picked up false information about that somewhere.
Just to clear that up.
So you are saying that Thomas Jefferson was not a “Core American”, eh? Thomas Jefferson was not Anglo-Saxon, fyi.
ABBA actually has their own youtube userid for this tour:
Reminds me of the ABBA Voyage tour going on. ABBA’s holograms are touring right now. Looks pretty interesting. You should look into it and post about it, Steve.
What a bunch of old boomers here. It’s obviously the aryan goddess Taylor Swift.
There was an article a couple days ago at ZeroHedge, about clueless govt folks advising people complaining about gas prices to "just buy an electric car, bro, no problem." As if the answer to $6/gallon gas is to spend 80k on a new car.
Because the owners of America decided to limit the available number of “leaders” to their relatives, affirmative action morons, women and effeminate men, they’ve created a government of imbeciles and yes “men”. They all pretend to see the same things and push us deeper into a hole.
Every time I read someone talking about the price of an electric car it is higher. $80k now?
A new Chevy Bolt goes for under $30k. You can find one for as low as $24k. And used electric cars are even cheaper.
Everyone just STFU about their conceptions of electric car prices.
I’ve owned electric cars since 2015. I currently own a 2022 Chevy Bolt which I bought for about $28K ($24K base plus all the extras).
One would want to install a 240V charger if one can and that will set you back a bit of cash for the hookup.
No more of this $80K BS, ok?
Look up the price of a Chevy Bolt if you don’t believe me for crying out loud.
Oh, yes! I didn’t think of that. Flipping multiple pieces moves the former cut. How could I have not thought of that? Thanks!
I was flummoxed by your math brainteaser and ended up googling for the answer – which is 84 as stated here:
https://demonstrations.wolfram.com/TheCakeIcingPuzzle/
I confess that I still can’t wrap my head around how those lines could exactly line up, though, given that 2pi is not commensurate with any whole number?
Can’t wait to see the explanation from you Derb.
Join a Holocaust discussion board and invite me to alleviate your ignorance about these matters.
Start a thread on RODOH, for instance.
If ignorance-based incredulity works for you then deny away. Deny everything you are ignorant about.
The Nazis didn’t mass slaughter the Jews because you can’t figure out how they burned their corpses.
The process that Germans used during the war for all of their cremation ovens (not just those at Birkenau which you are referring to) was to insert corpses after the earlier ones went through their combustion phase – which occurs after about 20-40 minutes. This, therefore, gives an average cremation time of 20-40 minutes when done continuously – even though a FULL cremation for any given corpse takes longer – as you note.
So the process is:
1. Insert corpse(s)
2. Corpse(s) go through rapid dehydration phase – evaporating of their liquid – causes evaporative cooling in the chamber
3. Dry parts ignite – fats ignite – reversing cooling
4. Corpse combusts – exploded parts drop through the grating they sit on into the ash chamber below
5. New corpse(s) are added – remaining parts of former corpses continue to cremate – mostly in the ash chamber below the grate where the new corpse(s) sit.
So your 90 minute math does not take into account the process – which is to introduce corpse(s) into the muffle at a rate of 20-40 minutes. Obviously introducing corpse(s) each 20-40 minutes would average out to be a cremation rate of 20-40 minutes divided by the number of corpses added – even though parts of those corpses continue to cremate for a much longer time.
Birkenau somehow had a rate of about half this 20-40 minute rate. My speculation about that is that those particular ovens were designed for multiple corpses – unlike all other ovens the Germans used up to that time.
This procedure was the same for all German wartime cremation ovens. You can reference the cremation tally sheets at quite a few of the ovens to see that they achieve with this procedure the averages I have told you. There are also plenty of copies of the procedure manual which states what I have told you.
Birkenau average cremation rates worked out to about 4 corpses per hour in a muffle but any particular corpse would not have been fully cremated until after about 3 hours though with this procedure. So the maximum number that could be cremated with their 52 muffles (not all were ever available at any time but this is a handwaving maximum I’m giving you here) is about:
4 corpses/hr-muffle * 24 hr/day * 52 muffles = 4992
I don’t think any reasonable person would care less about your objection to the term “the Holocaust”. The objection of the term as stated here merely shows the person doing the objection to be an obsessive weirdo. No one should kid himself otherwise.
The author of this piece should take this to heart. This article is not very interesting and shows the author to be a weirdo. Nothing else.
This post got me thinking about transparent solar panels:
https://solarmagazine.com/solar-panels/transparent-solar-panels/
Pretty neato. They pass optical light through but use the non-optical wavelengths to produce electricity – at about 10% efficiency.
People would then need to design building windows to most efficiently capture this radiation for conversion to electricity.
Seems a bit of a stretch but interesting to think about. I could imagine these things being able to pay for themselves over their lifespan – and maybe more.
Yes. The GPS system is designed to take relativity into account. If relativity was not accounted for then the system would not work.
or can you give an instance of a field of engineering or any advance based on Einstein’s theory
Those grapes were sour anyway.Replies: @blake121666
The loss of Einstein was not a blow to German science,
The relevance of GR to GPS is a widely touted falsity. The experimental fudge factor added to GPS calculations is a much greater contributor to getting the right answer than any GR contribution – by 2 orders of magnitude. The belief that GPS needs GR is a false one because of this. People saying otherwise have never looked into EXACTLY where the actual numbers one uses come from. GR’s contribution is undeniably insignificant – given the fudges that need to be used (which are much greater than any GR contribution).
Is she wearing wax teeth in that profile pic?

I went to the mirror to see if I could show so much gum – without success.
Probably because neither of your parents was a horse.
I went to the mirror to see if I could show so much gum – without success.
Whether a planet could be habitable is determined primarily by the planet’s climate. I will talk about how insights we’ve gained from studying Earth’s climate have been used to make predictions about which exoplanets might be habitable …
Choppers Chen did us a service, really. It seems the lecture was basically another global warming FUD fest to be cited by the Get In The Pod, Eat The Bugs crowd.
One possible answer is that civilizations tend to destroy themselves through mechanisms such as environmental damage …
The spacecraft’s target asteroid, a roughly 525-foot piece of rock known as Dimorphos, is in no danger of hitting Earth
Until some bozo with a meteorite gun deflects it.
Mein Führer, We Can Do it!https://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/commons/thumb/c/ce/Orion_pulse_unit.png/220px-Orion_pulse_unit.png
Until some bozo with a meteorite gun deflects it.
Replies: @El Dato
The design for Project Orion originally used small hydrogen bombs whose explosion ejecta was captured on a pusher plate, a large metal plate mounted on shock absorbers. The explosion of the bomb was spherical and it was only the portion that struck the plate that created thrust. Moving the plate closer to the bomb increased the subtended angle that was captured, and thus efficiency, but at the cost of greatly increasing mechanical stress and added pusher plate weight. Baseline designs captured perhaps 10% of the energy of the bomb, a large waste. This led to considerable attention to this problem, and eventually a custom atomic bomb design for this purpose.[1]A conventional hydrogen bomb includes two stages; the primary is an atomic bomb normally based on plutonium, while the secondary is a mixture of fusion fuel and various boosters. The primary releases an intense burst of X-rays that heat channel filler materials (believed to be similar to styrofoam) surrounding the secondary. The heat and pressure of the x-rays and their interactions causes the secondary to implode, compressing and heating the assembly to the conditions needed for nuclear fusion to occur.[2][3]For the Project Orion redesign, the team removed the secondary and replaced the channel filler with beryllium oxide, which is more opaque to x-rays. On the far side of channel filler, they placed a plate of tungsten. When the primary is triggered, the beryllium oxide heats up to millions of degrees, passing this heat into the back of the tungsten plate. The tungsten is vaporized and sent flying off the end of the bomb as a plasma in a fan about 22.5 degrees wide.[4] This plasma is captured by the pusher plate for thrust, capturing perhaps 85% of the total momentum.[5] These propulsion modules were, in effect, nuclear shaped charges.[1]https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Casaba-Howitzer
Sure, and as I said before I call our Mexican cleaning lady Kleenx. And when government actually works, it is not ….”really, really bad.”
I think you DID prove it generally with this.
Call the largest even perfect square in [2n+1, 4n-1] Z.
Choose a,b,c such that:
2c = Z*Z + Y*Y – X*X
2b = Z*Z – Y*Y + X*X
2a = -Z*Z + Y*Y + X*X
Then
2(a+b) = X*X
2(a+c) = Y*Y
2(b+c) = Z*Z
where Y = Z-2 and X = Z-4.
It would only be 1/2 if he had stated which one was heads (the first or the second). Then there is only 2 possibilities for the other. But he said both coin flips were done and one was heads. That knocks out TT from the possibilities and HH is one of the 3 remaining. Therefore 1/3 probability.
This is the “Boy or Girl paradox”
Anyone recommending a hybrid over a BEV is recommending the worst of both worlds.
I’ve had BEVs for over 6 years – currently have a Chevy Bolt (with a “B”). There’s no need for any hybrid for me (or anyone).
I bought it new for $26k – so it wasn’t particularly expensive. I get about 300 miles with its 60 kWh battery pack – which is fine for me and most people. All charging to date has been at home from my L2 charger. And I live in an area (MD) which has plenty of fast chargers within a 350 mile radius. So I could drive anywhere without the need for an ICE – which requires much more service than a BEV (which requires none at all for its engine).
There’s no need for any hybrid for me or anyone. 300 miles range is well within the needs of most people. Hybrids are an unnecessary complication. If someone has a need for long distance travel he can rent an ICE vehicle for that travel.
The Chevy Volt was a ridiculous idea.
Actually I wasn’t thinking that tediously about it. I had confused in my mind the [n, 2n] that we are dealing with with [0, n] while thinking about shifts in the squares to give a square in addition. And so the logic in my mind was incorrect.
Since n >= 100, the number of perfect squares in [n, 2n] >= 5
So there are at least 3 perfect squares in any cutting of the deck in half.
i.e. I was thinking about the highest perfect square shifted down (b^2 – x) minus the lowest perfect square shifted up (a^2 + y).
The addition of these two would be b^2 – (y-x) + a^2.
And then I confused in my mind [a, b] with the original [n, 2n] (thinking [a, b] to be [o, n] inclusive – but of course it is not)
So a clusterfuck of thinking on my part. But something like this might give an elegant solution – which eludes me, actually!
The pile that has 112 does not necessarily also have 113.
You need to show that one of the 2 piles would always have 2 numbers whose sum is a perfect square on any shuffle.
And the range is the more general [n, 2n] – with n >= 100. Perfect squares become more sparse as n increases. You need to show the point holds for any n >= 100.
I did that in my post but need to explain it better (the 2^2 = 4 bit in my post)
You should have read my post – 2 posts up from yours.
I’m intrigued by Polar Night Energy’s method of storing heat in sand:
https://polarnightenergy.fi/technology
Looks very interesting. It’s pretty much a cheap plug and play for cities with “district heating”.
Sand is easier to deal with than water – water boils off at 100C – can hold 10x the heat.
I brought up 3 separate matters in my post.
Solar is the most cost-efficient.
It is impractical for the foreseeable future to think that everyone will be their own energy source. Of course, no one will ever be one’s one SMR administrator – so I think you were talking about 2 different things as well.
Nuclear waste handling makes nuclear prohibitively expensive. That will never not be the case. You can forget about SMR.
Solar farms is the winner today and should remain so for the foreseeabe future.
Another interesting tidbit I learned relatively recently: Nio EVs in China have their batteries swapped at service stations for a ridiculously low price. It beats the pricing of fast chargers – and is much quicker.
I probably should have commented about the main gist of the article. I don’t see gasifiers (that’s what she’s talking about here – gasifying solid fuel like hemp) as a better solution than the current situation. I myself don’t really care about “greenhouse gasses” or whatever. That talk is and always has been largely a crock. Gasified fuel is lower energy density than current fuels. I’d choose the current situation over it any day of the week. It’s another thing to throw into the mix – but it has always been hard to think of why one would choose it over alternatives. The only reason people do it is when they don’t have access to better fuels – or wish to be self-sufficient on that front (such as Germany early last century). It is simply more trouble than it is worth for the way we use high energy density liquid fuels. I (and anyone) would much rather have a gas tank or a battery pack on a vehicle rather than a bulky gasifier (which is toxically dangerous – a gasifier’s output is mostly carbon monoxide).
I wrote that range wrong. It is [2n+1, 4n -1]. We’re starting at n – I was thinking starting at zero.
Number of perfect squares for n = 100 is then about 5 – not 10.
But 5 is greater than 4 as well.
I might have to think it through a bit more; but that’s the gist.
The math problem seems pretty trivial to me unless I’ve missed something about it.
The range of the addition of 2 numbers from the set [n, 2n] is [n+1, 4n-1]
The number of perfect squares in this [n+1, 4n-1] range is OBVIOUSLY greater than 2^2 = 4. So one of the piles contains at least one perfect square in the addition of 2 of its members.
The number of perfect squares in [n+1, 4n-1] would be floor(sqrt(4n-1)) – ceil(sqrt(n+1)) – which is something like 10 when n = 100.
Electric cars are the most cost effective choice for most person’s needs. And their performance in most categories blows away all others.
The most cost-effective way electricity is generated today is through solar. The trouble, though, with solar is that its production is choppy – so one needs to be able to store its energy.
I have had solar panels on my house since 2012 and have driven electric cars since 2015. I am very happy with the arrangement.
A relatively new company in Finland had caught my attention not too long ago who have a system to store energy in sand. They are called Polar Night Energy:
https://polarnightenergy.fi/technology
People interested in these matters (as I have been for decades) should look into this if they haven’t seen it already. There are interesting videos about this out their on the interwebs.
Yeah, same thought here. I've done that simple "cousins math" thing since i was a kid. How much more related am i to my brother (1/2) as my cousins (1/8). But these sentences are comparing that--simplistic inheritance--stuff to this question of overall relatedness in a race vs. everyone else in the world.My poke. Naively ...-- You're spot on, same alleles, related to your half-siblings (i ain't got none!) .25 on average
> For example, members of the same continental race are about as related (r = 0.18–0.26) as half-siblings (r = 0.25).I can’t make any sense out of this claim.r = 0.18-0.26 for members of the same continental race [of different families, presumably]
r = 0.25 for half-siblings [with the three parents from three different continental races?]So, what’s r for half-siblings with all three parents from the same continental race?
I think you’re overthinking it.
You are 0.5 related to each of your parents. So 2 people who share one parent (not both) are 0.5 * 0.5 = 0.25 related.
Half- siblings are therefore 0.25 related.
He wants a coil bookend.
Derb is incorrect that a bookend such as he shows there sold for $3 40 years ago – maybe 50 years ago but not 40. A $3 bookend from 50 years ago would be about $20 today. And that is what they are now.
Go to ebay.com and search for “coil bookend” and then sort on price+shipping. They’re about $20 nowadays.
Or you could search for “adjustable bookend” – which look pretty neat to me – and are also in the $15-$20 range.
If you get them from Amazon.com, there’s usually some sort of free shipping over a certain price point. That might be a better bet than ebay in this case.
I meant 1/2 * (r2 – r1). r1 + epsilon = r2 – epsilon = r3 (where epsilon is the center of the circle for r3). So I meant 1/2 * (r2 – r1) for the common y-coordinate of the 2 semicircles.
For the math problem, call the upper circle’s radius r1, the lower r2, and the larger r3. Translate the r1 and r2 circles to common axes (r2-r1 away from the r3 circle y-axis). Consider the r2 on the translated x-axis and r1 on the translated y-axis. The hypotenuse of that right triangle is r3. So r1^2 + r2^2 = r3^2. And therefore:
1/2 * pi * r1^2 + 1/2 * pi * r2^2 = 1/2 * pi * r3^2
q.e.d.
It’s probably the Spring Lake Winery by Niagara Falls.
Northern climes grow grapes and have wineries too, fyi.
The 13th amendment (passed in 1865) made indentured servitude illegal in the USA. Anyone who might have been involved in such a thing in 1901 in any way was a felon.
I believe you might be conflating “indenture” with something else.
It’s simple but tedious to prove this by induction.
Assume you’ve entered into your 4-element periodic sequence (A, B, -B, A-B) and are at A-B. Then you can show that the next number you get is A because
A-B = max{A, -B} – B (because A > -B)
So now you are at A.
Then the next number will be B because:
-B = max{A-B, B} – A (because A > 2B)
Then the next number will be -B because:
B = max{-B, A} – (A – B) (because A > -B)
So now you are at -B.
Then the next number will be A – B because:
A = max{B, A-B} – (-B) (because A > 2B).
To get your answer, assume it (a 4-element period) and prove it inductively at step X_sub(N) ( = your “A” here).
You’d need to show that the sequence will always fall into the suitable (A, B) of course. To do that you’d need to consider the 4 separate conditions that arise – which is too tedious for me to bother with. I’m sure Derb can handle it though.
I was under the impression that USA food, beverage, and feed exports were quite high. Surely something in that list sells for a dollar or less 9 thousand miles away, don’t you think?
I fail to see any constructive point to your post. Why don’t you tell me how your post applies, for instance, to Germany?
Are you saying that you want the USA to produce and sell cheap crap far away?
This has nothing to do with California but where I live the cars wrap around the Chick-fil-A drive-thru 3 times. There’s always like 50 cars in line at any time!
I went there once because someone gave me a gift certificate. I went inside and waited in line behind about 30 people. On reaching the counter I asked the woman there what the event was and she told me it is that way from open to close every day they’re open!
Can you explain why it isn't 1 SD?Replies: @blake121666, @Peter Johnson, @Trelane
There is more variance within races than between for any trait where the two groups differ by less than two standard deviations.
What he said was nonsense; that’s why!
Check out ANOVA:
I hereby humbly request “X consistency”:
Latino = Latinx
Blacks = Blax
POC = Pox
Chinese = Chinx
I suspect the author meant to report that 23% of Native Americans received failing grades; 23% of Hispanics received failing grades; etc.Replies: @blake121666
23% + 23% + 20% + 7% = 73 % of failing grades to the above-listed groups, even assuming no overlap. Who got the other 27%?
That must be it. It explains the large American Indian number as well.
23% + 23% + 20% + 7% = 73 % of failing grades to the above-listed groups, even assuming no overlap. Who got the other 27%?Replies: @The Germ Theory of Disease, @Craig Nelsen, @Barnard, @Buffalo Joe, @Lot, @jon, @EdwardM, @blake121666, @bomag
By ethnicity, 23% went to Native Americans. Another 23% of failing grades went to Hispanics. And 20% of D or F grades went to Black students. By comparison, just 7% of failing marks went to White students.
I was wondering that too. I did a web search and came across:
https://go.boarddocs.com/ca/sandi/Board.nsf/files/BRQUES7BBDEB/$file/Final-Building%20Anti-Racist%20%26%20Restorative%20School%20Communities.pdf
Which has a bar graph of:

I’m not sure how to interpret this one either though!
But it says that Asians are 6.4% for Steve and everyone else’s info.
Maybe the “Two Plus” are counted in multiple categories (e.g. a black/white mulatto goes into both the “black” and the “white” categories)?
No the way the matter was put can only be thought to have been incompetent or intentionally misleading.
God only knows what you mean by “bass ackwards”.
If you are a member of a majority, than anything relating to probabilities of ANY minority/majority interactions will naturally have it that the minority will have a greater probability of that interaction with the majority than than vice versa.
Blacks are more likely to have practically ANY interaction with a non-black than the non-black with the black.
Tell me the statistics for minorities other than blacks. How much more likely is it for an oriental person to kill a white person than for a white person to kill an oriental person? That Virginia Tech oriental mass shooter from years back probably skews those results? Should you walk around fearing being shot by an oriental from that? Because that is how someone will interpret what is being stated here by most people.
There’s probably ample evidence to make a case for blacks being more criminally violent. Misleading people by stating what is stated in this post isn’t the way to do that. It only leads to you looking incompetent or biased (and “bass ackward”, lol).
If blacks were, say, 13% of the population, and if a black were to randomly kill someone, he’d be (100/13 = 7.7) times more likely to kill a non-black than a black because there are 7.7 times as many non-blacks than blacks. Conversely, a non-black would only be 13% likely to kill a black if killing randomly.
Just from a purely random distribution of killing, blacks would be about 8 times more likely to kill a non-black.
Is this incorrect? Why would no one mention this?
I just today used similar logic to yours. I asked the question of which numbers (of the A, B, C – where C >= B >= A) would give me the smallest resultant number (keeping in mind the symmetry as you wrote there). And you get linear relations in A – which imply what you write in your write-up – such as the 3A + 1 relation you noticed.
… etc.
It’d be a bit of a bear to write it out formally as a comment. I guess that’s why your write-up is the length it is.
I haven’t figured out the exact answer to the brainteaser but the expression:
A^3 + B^3 + C^3 – 3ABC can be factored into:
(A + B + C)(A^2 + B^2 + C^2 – AB – AC – BC)
So if you set B = A + n and C = A + m, you could write that as:
(3A + n + m)(n^2 + m^2 – nm)
A quick perl script to look at the answers suggests that all non-negative numbers other than multiples of 3 which aren’t also a multiple of 9 can be attained. I haven’t figured out why this is though.
and...https://www.gc.cuny.edu/CUNY_GC/media/CUNY-Graduate-Center/History/Fall-2020-Slavery-and-Capitalism.pdf
This brief survey has attempted to highlight the latest research on the American economy during the decades between the Revolution and the Civil War. It is worth noting the methodological eclecticism of this scholarship, a testament to new claims on the economic past by those who by no means identify as “economic historians.” To be sure, social, political, and cultural historians could afford to be in greater dialogue with scholars inclined toward quantification and armed with technical expertise on issues like specie flows and currency discounts; likewise, the highly specialized work of economic historians on essential topics like banking must be made accessible to lay readers. Ultimately, the economic past is open for reconsideration by historians using whatever tools they have at their disposal. One of the most promising opportunities for the study of slavery and capitalism is in the fruitful collaboration of scholars working across fields like visual and material culture, the history of management and accounting, and political economy (just to name a few possibilities). Particularly liberating is that this research need not pursue a causal relationship between capitalism and slavery as its ultimate goal. The question of whether slavery caused capitalism or capitalism caused slavery carries much less urgency than it once did; so too does the matter of whether slavery is in, of, or outside capitalism. What seems most important here is that slavery was indispensible to the American economy as it rose to global importance in the nineteenth century, and that no narrative can explain the nation’s spectacular pattern of development without placing slavery front and center.
No scholar seriously doubts that there was a strong relationship between the development of capitalism and the emergence of New World slave plantations. Where they disagree is over the nature of that relationship. Was slavery itself a form of capitalism, or was the master-slave relationship fundamentally different from capitalist social relations? Did slavery give rise to capitalism, or did capitalism give rise to slavery? This course will address these questions, beginning with a survey of the way scholars have addressed them. Then, with a particular focus on the United States, we will address the theoretical and empirical question of whether the slave economy of the Old South was or was not capitalist. Finally, we will shift to the very different question of the relationship between southern slavery, especially the cotton economy, and the industrialization of the North.Replies: @blake121666, @syonredux
I am familiar with his argument, as you highlighted it before. Of course, there are competing theories, but in my estimation the sources I provided undercut Wright’s thesis.
How did the sources you provided “undercut” his thesis?
His thesis was that exports were only 7% of US GDP.
And the sources you keep going on about are simply stating that the textile industry was very large. But one of your sources offhandedly stated that cotton wasn’t even as big as wheat within the internal economy of the USA. How many slaves were involved in the wheat production of the time?
An interesting tidbit in your quotes was the statement that 1/5 of all workers in Britain were involved in some way or other in the textile industry. How large was that a percentage of Britain’s GDP at the time? And what was Britain’s GDP in relation to the USA’s at the time?
And then they go on and on about exports blah blah blah, capitalism blah blah blah. Blah blah blah!
The point of the OP was that exports were a small part of the USA (and other countries’) GDP.
Please refute this point for us from your quotes. Show how your quotes undercut the point.
Can you explain your reasoning about “undercutting” his point? I am genuinely not getting your attitude.
Slave industries were important for cash crops – for export. But exports were not all that important for the wealth of the USA is the point. Please refute this point.
Oh gheez, I misremembered what you stated: 24 rolls of the dice pair for double sixes.
The odds of no double sixes after 24 rolls would be (35/36)^24 = 0.51. So the odds of getting a double-six in those 24 rolls would be 0.49 – less than even odds.
If he had added one more roll he’d be over the break-even mark (just barely at 0.506 odds)!
The math problem is easily figurable by considering the probability of not getting the six on each roll – 5/6. So the probability of not getting a 6 on 4 rolls would be (5/6)^4 = 625/1296 = 0.48. So the probability of a 6 turning up in one of those 4 rolls is therefore 1.00 – 0.48 = 0.52 – or better than even odds.
Likewise, for the double-sixes with 2 dice: (35/36)^4 = 0.89. So the probability of getting a double-sixes in 4 rolls is only 0.11. It’d take about 25 rolls for favorable odds for that one (ln(1/2)/ln(35/36)).
I said the same thing in post 7 – but reconsidered in post 13 after being made aware that the 0 and 20 handshakers must be a couple.
That 20-0 couple cannot be Alexandra and Nicholas because Alexandra has to have the same number of handshakes as someone else – since the others have all numbers inclusive. And if Alexandra shook 20 hands, then someone else must have shaken 20 hands and therefore had to have shaken Nicholas’ hand – but he has 0 shakes. Likewise, Alexandra cannot have shaken 0 hands because the other person who has shaken 0 hands conflicts with Nicholas having shaken 20 hands.
On considering all other couples minus the 20-0 couple, you then recurse down to eliminating Nicholas and Alexandra as being a 20-0, 19-1, 18-2, … (renumber the handshakes removing 1 from each – given the fact of the one removed couple having someone shaking all hands and the other none). So Alexandra and Nicholas must be the 10-10 pairing.
Nicholas shook 10 hands.
Interesting party arrangement!
The person who shook 0 hands is the spouse of the person who shook 20 hands.Replies: @blake121666
If each person of 21 people gives a different number from all others in the range 0 to 20, then they all as a group have given inclusively the range 0 to 20. But the person saying he shook 20 hands conflicts with the person saying he shook 0 hands – because he had to have shaken all hands other than his own and his spouse’s and therefore had to have shaken the hand of the person who claims to have shook no hands. This is a contradiction.
Oh yes, I see what you are saying. The question then becomes: is that 0-20 pairing Alexandra and Nicholas or another couple?
It cannot be Alexandra and Nicholas because Alexandra’s number of handshakes has to be the same as someone else’s – because there are no other numbers to choose from 0 to 20. If she shook 20 hands, then someone else must have shaken 20 hands and you get the contradiction again. There is a similar contradiction if she shook 0 hands. So the 0-20 couple cannot be Alexandra and Nicholas.
If it is not Alexandra and Nicholas, then remove that other couple from consideration and consider what is left: Nicholas and 9 couples who have numbers 1 to 19 inclusive. You can then renumber after removing that removed couple’s handshakes from consideration – the person who shook 20 hands shook everyone’s hand – in particular the person who shook one hand – namely him! So you can recursively drill down, removing the 1-19 couple and so on and so forth.
You are at the end of this recursion left with only 10-10 – which must be what Alexandra and Nicolas are (the 10-10 couple)!
Therefore Nicholas shook 10 hands!
That was an interesting problem! Thanks for helping out with that. One of those rare problems that can be thought through entirely in one’s head.
The answer to your brainteaser is that the situation is impossible.
It is to be assumed that each couple know each other. So the number of hands shaken by anyone is in the range 0 to 20 (no one shakes his partner’s or his own hand).
If each person of 21 people gives a different number from all others in the range 0 to 20, then they all as a group have given inclusively the range 0 to 20. But the person saying he shook 20 hands conflicts with the person saying he shook 0 hands – because he had to have shaken all hands other than his own and his spouse’s and therefore had to have shaken the hand of the person who claims to have shook no hands. This is a contradiction.
The person who shook 0 hands is the spouse of the person who shook 20 hands.Replies: @blake121666
If each person of 21 people gives a different number from all others in the range 0 to 20, then they all as a group have given inclusively the range 0 to 20. But the person saying he shook 20 hands conflicts with the person saying he shook 0 hands – because he had to have shaken all hands other than his own and his spouse’s and therefore had to have shaken the hand of the person who claims to have shook no hands. This is a contradiction.
For those who might not be aware: Neuengamme had little to do with the Jewish Holocaust. The atrocities alleged of there were on non-Jews.
https://encyclopedia.ushmm.org/content/en/article/neuengamme
“Initially, there were very few Jews in the camp; by 1942, they numbered between 300 and 500. In the summer and autumn of 1942, the SS removed all of the Jews”
Just an FYI to correct what looked like misconceptions to me in many of the comments. Steve might wish to clear this up in the main post.
That also poses a dilemma for the champions of the official story, who claim that these Jews were murdered in the Reinhardt camps: Treblinka II, Chelmno, Sobibor, Belzec- along with Majdanek/Lublin. There are no mass graves commensurate with even tens of thousands of victims, let alone over a million collectively. There are no traces of the enormous excavations and earth moving which would have been required to create them and fill them in. There are no traces for the exhumation of the alleged mass cremations of these bodies during the alleged Aktion 1005- which must be the most laughable hoax in history with respect to explaining away the complete lack of evidence.
The Germans handled these millions of Jews and they were nowhere to be found after the Germans handling of them.
But there were found at Majdanek the clothes of about 2 million Jews at its liberation. Hence the reason why it was estimated that many Jews were killed there. In particular, there were HUGE stockpiles of old shoes at Majdanek from about 2 million Jews.
Contrary to what most people think, there was never a very large percentage of Jews sent to work or concentration camps. The vast bulk of the Jews were sent into ghettos in the General Government (the parts of prewar Poland not annexed to the Reich). And then those ghettos were cleared out – thousands per day and sent to AR camps. The AR camps were small and didn’t have room for anymore than some few thousands at a time (if that). Their clothes were sent to Majdanek; so where did the Germans send these naked Jews from these AR camps? The majority of the ghetto inhabitants were unfit for work – as stated by Buehler in the minutes of the Wannsee conference:
https://www.yadvashem.org/docs/wannsee-conference-protocol.html
The ghettos were cleared thousands per day. Everyone knew this at the time. Everyone knew at the time when those ghettos were essentially completely empty of any Jews. It is known fairly well that there were plenty of Jews in those ghettos before being transported out and virtually none afterward. And their belongings ended up at Majdanek.
No one has a clue where the vast bulk of those Jews ended up if they were not slaughtered. The known transports elsewhere don’t add up to much. And there are no records or even logic to justify any claim that millions of unfit for work Jews were settled somewhere else.
Confusion at the time about engine types, pit sizes, etc is no answer to what happened to those Jews. Those confusions have the possibility of being cleared up.
Here's the lowdown on the Wannsee Conference:
“The public still repeats, time after time, the silly story that at Wannsee the extermination of the Jews was arrived at.”
– Yehuda Bauer, an Israeli professor of “holocaust studies”, and former Yad Vashem “holocau$t” Theme Park director
So what? They recycled clothes and shoes for the purpose of fixing them. Majdanek barracks #62 was a shoemaker's shop. You think they didn't know that? They were just lying, deliberately.
But there were found at Majdanek the clothes of about 2 million Jews at its liberation. Hence the reason why it was estimated that many Jews were killed there. In particular, there were HUGE stockpiles of old shoes at Majdanek from about 2 million Jews.
Please show that the clothes at Majdanek were worn by the AR camp Jews at the time they arrived at these AR camps.
The AR camps were small and didn’t have room for anymore than some few thousands at a time (if that). Their clothes were sent to Majdanek;
How about you show us one "huge mass grave" from Treblinka 2, Belzec or Sobibor with the burnt/unburnt remains of a mere 0.1% of the alleged victims attributed to the camp. Should be easy, and anyone who claims the existence of "proven mass graves" that cannot do this is simply lying.
so where did the Germans send these naked Jews from these AR camps?
According to the 5 January 1944 Globocnik Report to Himmler (4024-PS) on Operation Reinhardt, the purpose of AR was to seize the wealth of the Jews and then resettle them elsewhere. Obviously Jews were not able to take all of their posessions with them, so furniture, jewelry, currency, other valuables, and - yes - even clothing would have been collected and sorted to be used by the Germans. Where is the evidence that the clothes at Majdanek were exactly the clothes that Jews were wearing at the precise moment they arrived at the AR camps?From the document:
And their belongings ended up at Majdanek.
Why are you wasting time here? You clearly have some telepathic ability that crosses both space and time. You can not only read every living person's mind, but also read the minds of people alive 7 decades ago. Are you some kind of superhero?
No one has a clue where the vast bulk of those Jews ended up if they were not slaughtered
Yes, the old missing outbound records. Well we know that there were at least a few small transports of Jews from Treblinka to Majdanek. How do we know? Because of the records from Majdanek that state they came from Treblinka. However, at one point there existed both records from Treblinka that said "train going to Majdanek" and then the record from Majdnaek that said "train from Treblinka". But only the "train from Treblinka" records at Majdanek survived. So it's an indisputable fact that records of Jews leaving Treblinka are gone/destroyed/hidden/lost... and it is further claimed by numerous pro-H sources that all of the Belzec train records were in one single building destroyed by a Soviet bomb on July 4 1944. So it's likely the Treblinka outbound train records also were all in one place, and the Sobibor outbound records all in one place also. And the Soviets were in control of all of them to selectively choose what was be shown.The claim is, the AR program was top secret (true) and that the Germans dismantled and destroyed the camps (also true). It is also claimed that they decided half-way through to dig up the rotting corpses and start burning them in giant outdoor pyres to "hide the evidence." Further, it is additionally claimed that the documents about these camps which refer to them in the context of deportation/resettlement are using "code words" to describe extermination; because if we are to assume these documents are correct, then the AR camps were not extermination camps at all.So, your position is that the Germans had a conspiracy to hide the evidence of mass murder of 1.5 million Jews at Treblinka 2 + Belzec + Sobibor and they went at great lengths to do this. OK, then we are to believe that they were just too stupid to do the obvious thing and find some guy, give him a typewriter, and have him spend a day or two typing up a bunch of fake outbound records of resettled Jews? Quite unreasonable to me.
And there are no records or even logic to justify any claim that millions of unfit for work Jews were settled somewhere else.
The only people who claim to know where they went is the exterminationists, and they claim that they all went into "huge mass graves" that are supposedly in precisely known locations.Somehow they can't show us one single pit from either T2+B+S with just 0.1% of the alleged victims. Why can't they do this? It's literally illegal to say these camps weren't "Extermination camps" in some countries so, there's a bit of a moral imperative to provide this very basic level of verifiable evidence.
Confusion at the time about engine types, pit sizes, etc is no answer to what happened to those Jews. Those confusions have the possibility of being cleared up.
How do you tell Jew shoes from non-Jew shoes?Replies: @Trinity
there were HUGE stockpiles of old shoes at Majdanek from about 2 million Jews
Well, my impression is that you're just one of the many ignorant half-wits who hangs around my website for some reason, mostly spouting off about illegal immigrants and that sort of nonsense. Perhaps instead of having written 9,500(!!) comments totaling 440,000(!!!) words, you might want to occasionally read a book or something before you get into subjects you obviously don't understand.
One way to clarify this is to consider Poland, which was of course invaded by Germany (and the Soviet Union) and suffered from total war. A conservative estimate of the number of Jews in Poland before the war is 3,000,000. A generous estimate of the number of them that survived the war is 800,000. So, roughly 73% of the Jewish population of Poland was annihilated.
Yes, the Jewish population movements of the time are indeed a “complex and highly specialized topic”. And I have read the Butz and Sanning book that you reference.
If you look at Sanning’s reference to his book conclusions at:
http://inconvenienthistory.com/9/1/4227
In all of his tables – but in particular let’s look at the last one, Table 5, he claims that only 757,000 Jews were in the Polish areas in 1941.
But if one were to reference the Korherr Report of the Germans created in early ’43:
https://www.ns-archiv.de/verfolgung/korherr/
Here it is translated in English (but missing some things in there which I won’t be referencing here and doesn’t matter for this discussion):
http://www.holocaustresearchproject.org/holoprelude/korherr.html
You notice that the Germans throughout this report are saying that there were about 2.0 million Jews in those Polish areas at the time. For instance, in the short report, it has:
Eastern Territories – 790,000
General Government – 2,000,000
And in section V.4 of the long report, it claims that the Germans “evacuated” 1.5 million Jews from the “Eastern Provences” to “the Russian East” by the end of ’42.
And the sub-number of V.4 of the Jews sifted through the camps in the General Government (1,274,166) is the exact same number as the Hoefle Telegram’s total for the number who were sent to the Aktion Reinhard camps.
So the Germans have this and more documentation showing them transporting more than 1.5 million Jews in these areas that Sanning only accounts for their being 757,000 in the Polish areas + areas east of that which don’t seem to show up in his table anywhere.
Where did the over 1.5 million Jews that the Germans transported come from – given Sanning’s analysis? It simply isn’t in there. Sanning fails.
I only use this one example to be clear on how obviously Sanning fails. I could go into more detail but a comment on an article here is not the place for that. Sanning is ridiculously wrong on the most simple of considerations.
While the subject is quite complex, the numbers of Jews that came under German control is known roughly well enough. The number of Jews that the Germans handled, in particular the ones in the General Government and neighboring region ghettos, is known roughly well enough. For instance, the large ghettos such as Warsaw and Lodz are known pretty well.
The number of Jews the Germans claim to have come across in the East of there is known roughly well enough.
The Germans handled these millions of Jews and they were nowhere to be found after the Germans handling of them.
Sanning is wrong in how many Polish Jews the Germans came across. They weren’t sent to Siberia in the numbers he deludes himself with (there were quite alot that were relocated by the Soviets though – just not Sanning’s delusional number).
While the person’s statement you are replying to is a rather simple one for a complex issue, it still stands. No one has come across those Jews after the war. In particular, no one has come across the Jews that are quite known to have been directly handled and documented by the Germans – in things such as this Korherr Report for one. So the OP’s position i justified enough and your snide reply does not refute it.
That also poses a dilemma for the champions of the official story, who claim that these Jews were murdered in the Reinhardt camps: Treblinka II, Chelmno, Sobibor, Belzec- along with Majdanek/Lublin. There are no mass graves commensurate with even tens of thousands of victims, let alone over a million collectively. There are no traces of the enormous excavations and earth moving which would have been required to create them and fill them in. There are no traces for the exhumation of the alleged mass cremations of these bodies during the alleged Aktion 1005- which must be the most laughable hoax in history with respect to explaining away the complete lack of evidence.
The Germans handled these millions of Jews and they were nowhere to be found after the Germans handling of them.
That would be kind of cool: for each GPS coordinate to have it's own unique time. That's sort of how it was in preindustrial days. Each town had a big clock in the square that kept the town's own time. Of course it would wreak havoc on flight schedules, TV schedules, and setting up a conference call. But it would be interesting to watch time literally (sort of) slow down or speed up continuously as you fly or drive. It would make you feel like one of the twins in Einstein's Time Dilation Paradox.We could also go to the other extreme by just getting rid of local time altogether, and just using Greenwitch Mean Time everywhere. That would completely divorce time of day from the position of the sun. But at least it would be uniform.Replies: @Achmed E. Newman, @blake121666
Or one could adapt to the age of clocks displaying a time generated by complex algorithm . . . . Make it so 12:00 is always when the sun reaches highest elevation!
China has only one time zone throughout its 60 degrees of longitude (with Beijing experiencing solar noon at 12:00):
https://www.timeanddate.com/time/china/one-time-zone.html
So the farthest western areas of China experience solar noon at 3:00 PM.
I wasn’t aware of this until now. Mao collapsed the former 5 time zones into one in 1949.
It just occurred to me that I should have said to scale by 0.65 and 0.02 – if you want to say at the end to multiply by the “N” you mentioned. I was only thinking of the relative comparison with the graphs.
Your math is correct, btw, because 145 is 3 SDs from a 100-mean 15-SD distribution and 3 SDs integrates out to .9973.
So (1-.9973)/2 * .65 = .0008775
The division by 2 is to only consider the right side of the distribution of course (the distribution is symmetric around the mean).
Your calculator is merely calculating the integral of the normal distribution.
A fuller answer to the man’s question would be to simply graph a normal distribution scaled by 65, centered at 100 and with a SD of 15. And then plot on the same axis a normal distribution scaled by 2, centered at 110 with a SD of 15. Then you can see exactly how those 2 distributions compare – throughout the entire axis – and in particular past 145 if you like.
According to this article from last month, Taylor Swift intends to re-record her older stuff as soon as she can legally do so – which is next year.
https://www.etonline.com/taylor-swift-calls-out-scooter-braun-and-scott-borchetta-over-rights-to-perform-her-older-music
quote:
Swift went on the claim that Borchetta told her reps that Big Machine Records will give the approval “only if I do these things: If I agree to not re-record copycat versions of my songs next year (which is something I’m both legally allowed to do and looking forward to) and also told my team that I need to stop talking about him and Scooter Braun.”
The national average property tax is 1.08%. Persons generally figure that they should be able to get a better return on investment than the money that would be given to the scheme you envision. And the property tax rate is a percentage of current property value – which can’t be predicted very well into the future. Home values tend to jump. One can’t do a one-time payment of a moving value.
Your scheme isn’t good for either side of the deal. Particularly since most people go with a 30 year mortgage. The property tax is essentially just an addition to the mortgage payment.
Wiki “Petroleum in the United States”:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Petroleum_in_the_United_States
The USA imports about 11% of its oil from abroad and about 11% of that is from Saudi Arabia. I don’t think that 1% of our oil consumption is as important as you make out.
An interesting factoid on that webpage is that our state oil production leaders are:
1. Texas – 29%
2. Alaska – 13%
3. North Dakota – 10%
4. California – 5%
Note: The graphic on that page shows ND as number 2. I wasn’t aware of ND’s oil production as being as significant as it is.
According to that webpage the USA produced 4 billion barrels of oil in 2018 and the average wellhead price was $61/barrel. That’s 244 billion dollars!
After just now googling our GDP, I see it is $20 trillion nowadays! I guess I shouldn’t be impressed by a mere $244 billion.
The comment you replied to is bollocks – it can’t be shown that “there wasn’t enough fuel …”. But it does require more fuel to burn a corpse than supplied by that corpse. That is because of the water content of the corpse. The cremation process consists of evaporating the water from a corpse (which of course results in evaporative cooling) and igniting the combustibles of that corpse (which suppplies heat). The heat from the corpse’s combustibles is not enough to offset the heat needed for the evaporation.
It is odd that your wiki link to Topf mentioned one of their patents – but not the one that most closely aligns with the case you wish to make. Their patent DRP 861731 was for a cremation oven that only required external fuel to bring it up to temperature and thereafter only the fuel of the coffins to continuously operate. But that coffin fuel was of course necessary. You couldn’t cremate corpses solely from the fuel of those corpses – as in your wood example.
I discuss this Topf patent here:
https://rodoh.info/forum/viewtopic.php?f=13&t=3141&p=123329#p123329
You can go directly to the very ending of that particular post of mine for a short synopsis of what the patent claims. Topf did indeed make a few of these particular cremation ovens which worked as claimed.
Here is a pseudonymous English translation for free:
BTW, why the hell did Barrett humor the moron with this flat Earth silliness? Is Barrett as dumb as he?
For those who are clueless, as has occurred to me might be the case (and might think I’m advocating flat Earth or something!), the issue with Galileo is usually stated as being that of the Earth being the center of the universe (as conceived of at the time) – IOW, heliocentrism vs geocentrism. The issue is usually nuanced differently from the Roman Catholic perspective, but seeing it in these terms would be more true to the matter.
Flat Earth was not officially taught by the Church. The official stance on that was that the Earth was indeed an orb – and not flat. There were then, as now, always ignorant persons about that though. And the flat Earth connotations with Galileo were either silly hyperbole or from hopelessly ignorant fools – which appears to be the case with this Ibrahim Soudy.
How someone gets a Ph.D. in a technical field with such a bizarrely stupid view on this matter shows what that Ph.D. is worth – and how poorly this man’s reasoning faculties are! Or that he spouts off ignorant nonsense about things which he knows nothing about.
Just the shear stupidity of this Ibrahim Soudy claiming at around the 6 minute mark that Galileo “came up with the discovery that the Earth cannot be flat” rules him out as a serious person. I had to stop listening right then.
If this fool knows nothing about Galileo – which every Western secondary schooler learns about – and yet decides to state ridiculous nonsense about him in the most laughably ignorant way, he can be assumed to be doing the same with anything that follows.
What an ignorant buffoon!
No, you don't get an exact mix but neither is it (statistically) possible to get ONLY the "Jewish" genes. Imagine that you have two decks of cards, one with red backs and one with blue. You shuffle the two decks together and deal out 52 cards. Except by coincidence, you are not going to get exactly 26 red and 26 blue, but you are going to get something close to it. One time you deal them out and get 24 red and 28 blue, another time you get 29 blue and 23 red, etc. But the odds that you are going to be dealt 52 red ("Jew") cards (10 times in a row!) are infinitesimal.Replies: @blake121666, @ben tillman
Are some genes more likely to be passed on than others? Or is it in fact the case that one gets an EXACT mixture of genes from one’s parents? I’m pretty sure this is NOT the case.
I’m not certain such a calculus applies to the problem. Genes can be dominant. I think the only way to know is to perform empirical tests. And these DNA tests have not been around long enough to have done that.
The sort of test I have in mind of course would be something like:
1. Determine the “ethnicities” of animals that then have offspring together – in the way “ethnicity” is being determined here for humans.
2. See what the mix is in the offspring.
3. Do this for many generations.
I read a fairly long time ago that white Brits and Americans are much more blue-eyed than they were just a few generations ago. And yet I’ve also heard that blue eyes are recessive genes. I don’t think people are using the right models for these sorts of things.
But I have no problem with what you say from an entirely theoretical standpoint. I’m simply more of an empiricist in such matters.
Other way around. White Americans were around 75% blue-eyed c. 1900.
I read a fairly long time ago that white Brits and Americans are much more blue-eyed than they were just a few generations ago.
7.5% of Russians having 25% or more Jewish ancestry is shockingly high to me, esp., when compared to the figures for other countries (3.5% in USA quite in line with what you would expect for a nation that's 2% 'Jewish'). I seem to recall reading Russia was less than 1% Jewish (in fact, it's currently claimed that Russia has a Jewish population of 176,000 or 0.12%). Also, consider the figures given here for Russia's Jewish demographics before and after WWII.
In Russia, the study revealed results similar to those in Hungary, with many more people having Jewish ethnicity than expected by demographers. 7.5% of the 5,266 DNA test-takers living in Russia had Ashkenazi Jewish ethnicity of 25% or more, making it the country with the third-largest percentage of Jewish ethnicity in the world, after Israel and Hungary. The larger size of Russia’s population (about 144 million) means that, in absolute numbers, the number of people with Jewish ethnicity there is very substantial. When setting the threshold of Ashkenazi Jewish ethnicity at 50% or more, the percentage in Russia drops to 3.1%, compared to 4.2% in Hungary. This indicates that in Russia, people who were ethnically Jewish tended to marry non-Jewish people at a greater frequency than in Hungary, which means that Jewish ethnicity in Russia is dissolving at a higher rate than in Hungary.
For hundreds of years prior to the Holocaust, Poland had been home to the largest and most significant Jewish community in the world. Poland was a principal center of Jewish culture, thanks to a long period of statutory religious tolerance and social autonomy. In the Holocaust, an estimated 3 million Polish Jews were killed. The study explored how many people who are ethnically Jewish still live in Poland today. MyHeritage DNA tests have only been recently made available for purchase in Poland. Of the 2,321 DNA test-takers in Poland, only 1.2% had Ashkenazi Jewish ethnicity of 25% or more, compared to 7.6% in Hungary and 7.5% in Russia.
Very interesting post. I myself have studied the Jewish population numbers (in connection with Holocaust denial as a matter of fact – but that’s beside the point).
I think the estimating of Jews in former Soviet countries tends to only refer to religious Jews. And religion was taboo in the Soviet Union.
There were about 11 million Jews in Europe at the start of WWII. And it is claimed that there were about 5 million there afterwards. The vast majority of these were in Soviet states (Russia in particular).
If you notice the citations of Steve’s OP, you see that Staetsky estimates that about 130,000 Hungarians have 50% or more Ashkenazi Jewish ancestry. But as you’ve quoted, he says that 4.2% of the test takers had 50% or more Ashkenazi Jewish ancestry. Using 9 million as Hungary’s popultaion, 4.2% of that would be 378,000. So he is estimating that Jews are 3 times more likely to take the test – and therefore the percentages are off by a factor of 3.
Doing the same for your Russian example, 1/3 of your 4.46 million would be 1.5 million. And this is probably right for the number of Russians of 50% Jewish ancestry – even after large emigrations.
BTW, Jews flooded into the USA starting around about the 1880s. And they very quickly became about 3-4% of the whole USA population in the first part of the 20th century. You can verify this with the AJC Yearbook archives:
http://ajcarchives.org/main.php?GroupingId=40
For instance, the 1939 Yearboook:
http://ajcarchives.org/AJC_DATA/Files/1938_1939_7_Statistics.pdf
has the Jews being 4,228,029 of the 122,775,046 USA population = 3.4%.
I’m certain they hit 4% one year but didn’t bother to search for that exact year. I think it was in the year before the ’20s immigration laws (and probably influenced those laws).
Regarding an earlier comment on this thread, 7.5% of Hungary’s approximate 10 million population is 750,000 – which happens to be Hungary’s estimated Jewish population in 1941 (after all of the border changes are taken into account). I suspect a Holocaust denier could probably make something of this. I’m not inclined to, though. I’m just taking the article at face value – that there are only about 130,000 50% genetic Jews in Hungary today.
Does anyone know exactly how the math would work for something like this?
For instance, while it might be the case that if you had a grandparent who was 100% Jewish, then you would probably be at least 25% Jewish – assuming that the genes determining that are passed on in equal proportions to genes that are not determinative of being Jewish.
But what if you had a 10-generation-ago ancestor who was 1/4 Jewish genetically – and those Jewish genes were simply passed on undiluted through ten generations? Are some genes more likely to be passed on than others? Or is it in fact the case that one gets an EXACT mixture of genes from one’s parents? I’m pretty sure this is NOT the case.
It seems to me that one could theoretically have Jewish genes passed on from a 100% genetically Jewish person from any time in the genetic past – if those genes are persistent. And we all know how persistent Jews can be!
Maybe Jewish genes are more “selfish” than others – to paraphrase Dawkins!
No, you don't get an exact mix but neither is it (statistically) possible to get ONLY the "Jewish" genes. Imagine that you have two decks of cards, one with red backs and one with blue. You shuffle the two decks together and deal out 52 cards. Except by coincidence, you are not going to get exactly 26 red and 26 blue, but you are going to get something close to it. One time you deal them out and get 24 red and 28 blue, another time you get 29 blue and 23 red, etc. But the odds that you are going to be dealt 52 red ("Jew") cards (10 times in a row!) are infinitesimal.Replies: @blake121666, @ben tillman
Are some genes more likely to be passed on than others? Or is it in fact the case that one gets an EXACT mixture of genes from one’s parents? I’m pretty sure this is NOT the case.
On waking this morning and thinking about the math conundrum here, I think the problem is with the concept of “counting” Real Number “infinity”.
If one were to refer to Real Number infinity as RI, and a countable set’s infinity as CI that might possibly resolve the problem.
I think RI has the queer property that any countable manipulation of it is still that RI – it can never go away in a countable way.
So when Derb says that L < 1/6 he is correct insofar that RI == 1/6 * RI (RI is identically equal to 1/6 times RI in his countable construction of it). But the set is uncountable – it is a collection of uncountable real number sets – that just so happen to be countably constructed.
So although it would be the case that the numbers not in his countably constructed sets are isolated because of the countable construction, each one of those sets is uncountable.
So you have a CI number of sets of length RI. And that is then RI.
If you were to think about it as is done here, you'd of course think "where are those real numbers"? And the answer is that they are indeed as he described them – there just so happens to be RI number of them (not a CI number – even though those sets are indeed constructed CI times).
Your extremely confused – and kind of have it backwards. The tiny line segments are real number line segments between two rational numbers (n/d – 1/10d^3 and n/d). All of those real number line segments only account for at most 1/6 of the real numbers between 0 and 1. Those numbers that do not fall within any of those line segments therefore make up the other 5/6ths-plus real numbers between 0 and 1. But those numbers are isolated because rational numbers are dense in real numbers (between any 2 distinct real numbers is a rational number). So all of those zero-length points (the points not in any of those line segments) account for over 5/6 of the real numbers between 0 and 1. This is counter-intuitive precisely because those numbers are merely isolated points before and after line segments. Do you see now?
This 115 page PDF from 1993 has a great deal of related information, but does not seem to answer that specific question.
Anybody know what the white percentage of public school students was in, say, 1969?
That sounds about right.
When I went to parochial grade school in the ’70s, there was a policy in my school to have the racial demographics match the general US grade school racial demographics – and that was 13% blacks in the early ’70s. My school did that even though the 13% blacks couldn’t afford the tuition.
So if parochial schools were doing that at the time, then the proportions would stay unchanged for the public schools. Therefore the 85/15 split you referenced would be about the same for public schools.
But I went to grade school in Baltimore City – which was about 50/50 white/black at the time. So the Baltimore City public schools were VERY black at the time – probably the reverse of my parochial school – 15/85 white/black.
But what can be called called a “generation” in this age of time travel we live in?
Oops! I might have let the cat out of the bag for you people born before XXXX. Just ignore that last comment.
And a birdie told me to buy Tesla stock 😉 Keep it under your hat.
Because he asked a question that doesn't have a good answer and I answered a similar question that does. Two, actually.
I can’t see why you would impose a vector space here.
No, not at all.
Taking your linear example. If you say that:
Y1 = AX + B
Y2 = CX + D
is saying that both Y1 and Y2 are linear in X. And therefore they are linear to each other. You can solve for X in either equation and get a linear equation in the Ys – as you did in your example. Talking about “Y1 – Y2” or the point where “Y1 = Y2” is just your own confusion about what is being asked. If Y1 and Y2 are both linear in a parametric X then they are linear to each other:
CY1 – AY2 = CB – AD
This is a linear relation between Y1 and Y2. There’s no particular reason to care about “Y1 – Y2” nor the point where “Y1 = Y2”. You are confused.
You are also confused about what a “line” is by your statement:
“To express one line in terms of another is meaningless; to express one line in terms of two lines that are orthogonal is a question that has meaning.”
Your two orthogonal lines are simply your imposition of a coordinate system on how you are thinking about a line. A line is one-dimensional to itself – one need only know “where” one is on a line in that one dimension. Its relation to another line would be another dimension – if it is linearly independent (that is the definition of linear independence). Orthogonality is of course not required – it just makes the referencing tidier in the math. Linear independence is all that is needed for bases in 2 dimensions – not orthogonality.
So a line is 1-dimensional and 2 linearly independent lines is 2-dimensional.
A parabola is merely a curved line. The relation of 2 parabolas to each other is the same as the relation of 2 lines to each other. One can one-dimensionally reference where one is on a parabola as the distance from its apex for instance. And one can 2-dimensioanlly reference another parabola. So instead of 2 “straight lines” in your imposed 2-dimensional coordinate system, you’d have a reference of the one curved line to the other curved line – 2 dimensions.
For example.
Say that one fires a trajectory out of a cannon on Earth’s surface and that the only force is constant gravity (neglect all other forces but gravity).
F_x = 0
F_y = -mg (g is constant)
Therefore one gets that:
x = x0 + v0_x * t
y = y0 + v0_y * t – 1/2 g * t^2
Eliminating t in these equations gives that
y = a * x^2 + b * x + c
The trajectory is a parabola for a projectile under a constant force in one dimension and no force in the other.
Now if you were ON this trajectory, this trajectory is your basis for anything you view outside it (your reference coordinates are that you are ON this trajectory – x = y = 0 for you). In the initial coordinate system of the problem, one has your trajectory being seen as:
y1 = a * x^2 + b * x + c
But to you, who is ON this trajectory, x=y=0 t all times.
Some other trajectory, which is not the one you are on, is fired from the cannon:
y2 = d * x^2 + e * x + f.
The question to you is: What is this other trajectory relative to YOUR coordinate system (which itself is another parabola in the original coordinate system)?
This is what is being asked here.
And the answer is to eliminate the common “x” in the equation to find that:
A * y1 ^2 + B * y2^2 + C * y1 * y2 + D * y1 + E * y 2+ F = 0
And this is a general quadratic – which is some type of conic section depending on what the (A,B,C,D,E,F) are (ellipse, hyperbola, parabola, point, or line).
So YOU would see that other trajectory as some particular conic section.
No. The question was:
The question was: what is Y1 in terms of Y2 when each of those is parameterized by a quadratic X? In other words, get the “X” out of the equations. It was really that simple – as Derbyshire said.
Y1 and Y2 are functions in X. To write Y1 in terms of other 2nd order polynomials, you need a set of them, i.e. the vector space is quadratic. From the text I referenced but you refuse to acknowledge:
Dumb (but real and research-related) question:
Y 1 = aX² + bX + c
Y 2 = dX² + eX + f
What is Y 1 in terms of Y 2?
r/t if you know a good high school math teacher
1.2 What are Vectors? 13
(C) Polynomials: If p(x) = 1 + x 2x2 + 3x3 and q(x) = x + 3x2 3x3 + x4 then
their sum p(x) + q(x) is the new polynomial 1 + 2x + x2 + x4.
(D) Power series: If f(x) = 1+x+ 1
2!x2+ 1
3!x3+ and g(x) = 1x+ 1
2!x2 1
3!x3+
then f(x) + g(x) = 1 + 1
2!x2 + 1
4!x4 is also a power series.
(E) Functions: If f(x) = ex and g(x) = ex then their sum f(x) + g(x) is the new
function 2 cosh x.
There are clearly dierent kinds of vectors. Stacks of numbers are not the
only things that are vectors, as examples C, D, and E show.
I had to rethink that last reply from me.
If one wished to reference something in two dimensions using polar coordinates instead of cartesian coordinates, one would use the basis vectors r_hat and theta_hat where:
x * x_hat = r * cos(theta) * r_hat
y * y_hat = r * sin(theta) * r_hat
x * x_hat in this notation is simply saying the vector “x” – has magnitude x in the direction of x_hat (right-left on a cartesian coordinate). Similarly for y in the up-down coordinate. And of course r_hat is a unit vector in the radial direction and theta_hat would be a unit vector in the angular direction.
In the problem at hand, we have that x and y are parametric in t (let’s use x,y, and t rather than the original’s Y1,Y2, and X) for a more standard way of writing it.
x = a * t^2 + b * t + c
y = d * t^2 + e * t + f
Now, if you wish to look at this as transforming the bases of x,y into a basis for t (and something else – let’s keep it 2 dimensions), what are those bases? Are you saying that you are using the focus and directrix of a parabola as the bases?
How might looking at these parametric equations in this way help in understanding those parametric equations better?
Is this what you are saying? And how does this help the initial person in his desire to know how x and y relate to each other when they are parameterized by a quadratic t? I can’t see why you would impose a vector space here.
Because he asked a question that doesn't have a good answer and I answered a similar question that does. Two, actually.
I can’t see why you would impose a vector space here.
No. The question was:
The question was: what is Y1 in terms of Y2 when each of those is parameterized by a quadratic X? In other words, get the “X” out of the equations. It was really that simple – as Derbyshire said.
Y1 and Y2 are functions in X. To write Y1 in terms of other 2nd order polynomials, you need a set of them, i.e. the vector space is quadratic. From the text I referenced but you refuse to acknowledge:
Dumb (but real and research-related) question:
Y 1 = aX² + bX + c
Y 2 = dX² + eX + f
What is Y 1 in terms of Y 2?
r/t if you know a good high school math teacher
1.2 What are Vectors? 13
(C) Polynomials: If p(x) = 1 + x 2x2 + 3x3 and q(x) = x + 3x2 3x3 + x4 then
their sum p(x) + q(x) is the new polynomial 1 + 2x + x2 + x4.
(D) Power series: If f(x) = 1+x+ 1
2!x2+ 1
3!x3+ and g(x) = 1x+ 1
2!x2 1
3!x3+
then f(x) + g(x) = 1 + 1
2!x2 + 1
4!x4 is also a power series.
(E) Functions: If f(x) = ex and g(x) = ex then their sum f(x) + g(x) is the new
function 2 cosh x.
There are clearly dierent kinds of vectors. Stacks of numbers are not the
only things that are vectors, as examples C, D, and E show.
I have a quite advanced level of knowledge in the subjects you think I have a “rigid little mind” about. That is why I showed you where you are misunderstanding these things.
You misunderstand the quite introductory text you cite and are mis-applying vectors with what you are doing here. And that is why you think your “series of quadratics” nonsense is something other than nonsense. Your “series of quadratics” crapola is a result of you applying a linear analysis to a non-linear problem, has nothing whatsoever to do with the original problem, and has everything to do with you not understanding the methods you are using. You are chasing your own tail.
The original problem merely asked to express Y1 in terms of Y2. And that is what Derbyshire showed how to do: solve for X in terms of Y2 and plug that into the Y1 equation. But that doesn’t really give one any insight into how Y1 and Y2 are related because you’d of course have the messy square root in Y1 from the quadratic formula. It is more informative to remove the X by simple manipulation of the equations to get that:
A * Y1^2 + B * Y2^2 + C * Y1 * Y2 + D * Y1 + E * Y2 + F = 0
where the (A,B,C,D,E,F) are some constants based on the initial (a,b,c,d,e,f) constants. And so this obviously shows that the initial parametric equations constrain the Y1 and Y2 to some conic section. This is all one can say given the generality of the initial problem. The Y1 and Y2 have this nonlinear relationship to each other.
A general parabola (ax^2 + bx +c) cannot be referenced with bases vectors in a 2-dimensional linear vector space because parabolas are not linearly similar to each other – like a circle where any circle can be expressed as a translation (addition) and scaling of any other circle. So you cannot come up with some “parabolic coordinate system” akin to the “polar coordinate system” for circles. If you do, you’d find that your bases vectors will need to expand or contract depending on where they are at that particular point in the space. IOW the space is NOT a linear one. And so your thinking about it as if it IS linear is bogus and a misunderstanding of the tools you are using.
You should have been clued into that by the very fact that your “series of quadratics” crap is actually ridiculously more involved than the original problem itself! It’s as if I asked you to tell me what “x” is if “x+5 = 10” and you respond with “well if you square the circle … blah blah blah”. You didn’t address the problem at all. You merely showed that you are quite confused about the tools you chose to misuse for the problem. Do you see that?
Actually, they are. All parabolas are similar. Any parabola can be scaled up or down and translated to become congruent to any other parabola, and you don't know that, stupid.A parabola is the locus of all points equidistant from the focus (point) and directrix (line).You're like a parrot, know a bunch of words but not their meaning. Oh wait, parrots understand some meaning.
A general parabola (ax^2 + bx +c) cannot be referenced with bases vectors in a 2-dimensional linear vector space because parabolas are not linearly similar to each other – like a circle where any circle can be expressed as a translation (addition) and scaling of any other circle.
The question was: what is Y1 in terms of Y2 when each of those is parameterized by a quadratic X? In other words, get the “X” out of the equations. It was really that simple – as Derbyshire said.
You are the one who doesn’t understand.
The “basis vectors” as you said in the previous reply are not linear at all. The Ys are PARAMETERIZED by quadratics (parabolas). Complicating the issue by talking of “basis vectors” only gives you a complicated mess of an affine space where your “basis vectors” change at each point – which means they aren’t proper mathematical vectors at all (they aren’t closed under addition and scalar multiplication). These “vectors” you imagine are not even affine actually (a physics vector space – as opposed to a mathematics vector space). A parabola has the weird symmetry of your original post – which is not linear in the space itself (doesn’t scale linearly).
You are quite confused.
Gheesh!
I have not introduced any “Y3”. It is you who is introducing “basis vectors” into this non-vector space.
And it is you who doesn’t know your “(only slightly) advanced linear algebra” you are musing about. In general, the Ys have a non-linear relationship, period.
No. The question was:
The question was: what is Y1 in terms of Y2 when each of those is parameterized by a quadratic X? In other words, get the “X” out of the equations. It was really that simple – as Derbyshire said.
Y1 and Y2 are functions in X. To write Y1 in terms of other 2nd order polynomials, you need a set of them, i.e. the vector space is quadratic. From the text I referenced but you refuse to acknowledge:
Dumb (but real and research-related) question:
Y 1 = aX² + bX + c
Y 2 = dX² + eX + f
What is Y 1 in terms of Y 2?
r/t if you know a good high school math teacher
1.2 What are Vectors? 13
(C) Polynomials: If p(x) = 1 + x 2x2 + 3x3 and q(x) = x + 3x2 3x3 + x4 then
their sum p(x) + q(x) is the new polynomial 1 + 2x + x2 + x4.
(D) Power series: If f(x) = 1+x+ 1
2!x2+ 1
3!x3+ and g(x) = 1x+ 1
2!x2 1
3!x3+
then f(x) + g(x) = 1 + 1
2!x2 + 1
4!x4 is also a power series.
(E) Functions: If f(x) = ex and g(x) = ex then their sum f(x) + g(x) is the new
function 2 cosh x.
There are clearly dierent kinds of vectors. Stacks of numbers are not the
only things that are vectors, as examples C, D, and E show.
It just occurred to me that I should have used “t” insead of “x” for clarity here. Or “delta_t” actually since the trajectories don’t need a common starting time of course.
h = h0 + v0 * delta_t – 1/2 g (delta_t)^2
The height of the trajectory is quadratic in time.
Yes. Take a course in linear algebra and then get back to me.Replies: @blake121666
A “series of quadratics”?A “series of quadratics”?
I know linear algebra quite well. What does your “series of quadratics” have to do with it?
The Y1 and Y2 share a quadratic relationship to each other and can therefore be seen as points on a conic section. Why anyone would wish to view that as a “series of quadratics” is beyond me. Would you view the points on a circle as a “series of quadratics” for each ordinate? Of course not. Your “series of quadratics” concept is more complicated than the original problem – which is simply to state the relationship between ordinates parameterized by quadratic equations. For the circle, you’d parameterize like:
Y1 = cos(theta)
Y2 = sin(theta)
In this instance, the Y’s are parameterized by quadratics. Saying they therefore can generally be seen as points on a conic section is a hell of alot easier to think about than a quadratic for each point – simply because each point would map to 2 points. The (a,b,c,d,e,f) simply determines the particular conic section. Easy peasy. No need for your “series of quadratics” – which of course has nothing whatsoever to do with linear algebra!
Do you even know what LINEAR algebra is? This problem is quadratic!
Yes, I know what linear algebra is. The LINEAR in linear algebra refers to linear COMBINATIONS of basis vectors. The unit vectors i j k are one set.This problem involves quadratic vector spaces, which is (only slightly) advanced linear algebra.You know basic linear algebra and you think you know it all. Common problem. I suggest you study this text: https://www.math.ucdavis.edu/~linear/linear-guest.pdfLearn this (Chapter Five)
Do you even know what LINEAR algebra is? This problem is quadratic!
As suggested at the end of chapter 4, the vector spaces Rn are not the only vector spaces. We now give a general definition that includes Rn for all values of n, and RS for all sets S, and more. This mathematical structure is applicable to a wide range of real-world problems and allows for tremendous economy of thought; the idea of a basis for a vector space will drive home the main idea of vector spaces; they are sets with very simple structure. The two key properties of vectors are that they can be added together and multiplied by scalars. Thus, before giving a rigorous definition of vector spaces, we restate the main idea.
A vector space is a set that is closed under addition and scalar multiplication.
As I posted elsewhere (on Steve Sailer’s blog where this came up), that Turkheimer quadratic problem I thought to be an interesting way to view trajectories of projectiles under a constant force (such as gravity).
Of course a projectile on the surface of the earth would be a parabola (ax^2 + bx +c) due to the constant gravity. So 2 projectiles in the same plane (say one starts at a different angle and with a different initial velocity than the other) would give the two quadratic equations such as Turkheimer states. Then Turkheimer’s question becomes: What is the other projectile’s trajectory from the point of view of the first projectile? And the answer is: some type of conic section – since those equations can be manipulated to show that Y1 and Y2 have a general quadratic relationship to each other.
So if I were shot from a cannon at a certain initial velocity and angle and viewed someone else shot from the same cannon at a different velocity and angle, I’d see that person’s trajectory as a conic section!
A “series of quadratics”?
One can obviously manipulate the equations to find that:
A * Y1^2 + B * Y2^2 + C * Y1 * Y2 + D * Y1 + E * Y2 + F = 0
where (A,B,C,D,E,F) are derived from the (a,b,c,d,e,f) of the original equations.
So the Y1 and Y2 have a general quadratic relation with each other and therefore can be viewed as points on a conic section if you like.
While this is not technically a “function” relationship, it’s not a “series of quadratics” relation. It’s simply a quadratic relation – plain and simple.
Y1 in terms of Y2 would in general give 2 points – as Derbyshire said.
Yes. Take a course in linear algebra and then get back to me.Replies: @blake121666
A “series of quadratics”?A “series of quadratics”?
Well the first thing that comes to mind is that of heights of projectiles under constant gravity – parameterized by time (X in these equations).
The heights of each of 2 projectiles at time t would be a parabola in t. The question then can be seen as what is the height of the one projectile in terms of the height of the other projectile? So it is a relativity problem.
Since the Ys are parameterized by parabolas, the 2 Ys would have a quadratic relation to each other – since you could obviously get a quadratic relation by manipulating the two equations to remove the Xs and have only Y1 and Y2 and constants. For instance, multiply the first by “d”, the second by “a” and subtracting the equations – giving a linear relation for “X”. Then plug that into one of the other equations to “remove” X from it and have only at most quadratic Y1 and Y2.
So while I agree that you would not get a unique solution, you’d still have a quadratic relation between the Y1 and Y2. And this tells you, for instance, that the height of one trajectory as seen from another trajectory is quadratic. So you’d get conic section solutions.
Mexico is listed as both number 2 and number 17 at that wikipedia page linked for obesity. Which is it?
I've never thought about this before before but perhaps the Hate Hoax just doesn't get any traction in Europe because hate speech laws mean that you don't need to bother finding actual hate crimes - you can simply prosecute offensive speech, so why go to the bother of framing someone and why bother reporting a flimsy story that might fall apart. This story about "Britain's most PC PC[Police Constable]" gives you a flavour of how things work on this side of the Atlantic:
On the other hand, cops in Britain appear fairly enthusiastic about persecuting violations of political correctness in social media or somebody saying something rude on a bus. Those are somewhat different than Hate Hoaxes of course. Do British cops do a good job of unraveling Hate Hoaxes?
You might be right with this. I was blown away when hearing of the Isle of Wight pub singer who was arrested for singing the song Kung Fu Fighting!
https://www.dailymail.co.uk/news/article-1380971/Simon-Ledger-arrested-racism-performing-Kung-Fu-Fighting.html
University College is a subsidiary non-selective (100% accepted) branch of the University of Maryland:
https://www.collegexpress.com/college/university-of-maryland-university-college/3000133/details/
It is similar to a community college.
College Park is the flagship campus (with the Terrapins). It is more selective – only 44% acceptance rate. And its tuition is accordingly 43% higher.
https://www.collegexpress.com/college/university-of-maryland-college-park/2400206/details/
You got me googling with that. Apparently LIGO claims:
“At its most sensitive state, LIGO will be able to detect a change in distance between its mirrors 1/10,000th the width of a proton!”
The “width of a proton” is generally taken to mean 10^-15. So LIGO claims a tolerance of 10^-19. I didn’t look into this claim to see how they determine this.
I guess this Webb Telescope is exponentially more precise than LIGO somehow.
Yeah, I did almost the exact same thing as the solution you’ve quoted here. It’s obvious that the solution, x, is of the form 4 + 6n since 1000 – x is divisible by 6. and b20 = 1 LOOKS like it would give the smallest answer. But I didn’t think to start the “a” sequence in this way. I foolishly made the “b” sequence the monotonic one – not the “a” sequence. I came up with 40. But it looks like yours is correct.
Well the link says the answer is 10. But 3 is not distinct in your sequences – it is found in both your a sequence and your b sequence, isn’t it? The problem claimed “40 distinct positive integers”. You have 39 distinct positive integers.
I think you are correct if it had stated that EACH sequence consisted of 20 distinct positive integers. And I think that is what was intended to be asked.
The answer to what is actually asked HAS to be 21 or greater – not 10.
Sanning’s thesis relies on much more than 700,000 less Jews in Poland during the war years. Sanning has less than a million Polish Jews under German rule in Poland during the war:
I am just looking through his book and I do not see the 2.0 million anywhere. Are you here to spread lies?Replies: @blake121666
Sanning has the 1939 Jewish population of Poland as having been about 2.0 million
I gave you the link to his latest in my post. Here it is again:
http://www.inconvenienthistory.com/9/1/4227
Those tables show what he said in his book. Look at tables 2 and 3. Table 2 claims 797k in West Poland in 1939 and about 1213k in the Soviet side in the ’30s – which implies about 2 million in all of Poland. Table 3 claims 841k of the 1026k Soviet side Jews were removed from Poland by the Soviets.
The Polish Jew population is a tough one to figure given the border changes both in the interwar years and the post-war years. But the 1939 Jewish population in the Poland of September 1939 was about 3.3 million.
The 1939 Jewish population is very well established to have been about 3.3 million in 1939. That is a given. I haven’t read what R. Unz has written but Sanning has the 1939 Jewish population of Poland as having been about 2.0 million:
http://www.inconvenienthistory.com/9/1/4227
And THEN he claims that the vast majority of the Polish Jews on the Soviet side (about 841k out of 1026k) were sent out of Poland by the Soviets. So Sanning thinks that there were less than ONE million Polish Jews that the Germans could have possibly handled. And yet the Germans estimated that 1.5 million were directly handled by them (transported to “the Russian East” – interpreted as a euphemism for slaughtered in the Reinhard death camps).
There’s abundant evidence that there were plenty more Polish Jews than Sanning claims during the war.
But you responded to his comment about 700,000. What is your problem? Did you come here to give a lecture?
I haven’t read what R. Unz has written
I am just looking through his book and I do not see the 2.0 million anywhere. Are you here to spread lies?Replies: @blake121666
Sanning has the 1939 Jewish population of Poland as having been about 2.0 million
This is quite incorrect – and is one of the main problems with Sanning’s estimates. If you look at the Korherr Report, it estimates the DIRECT HANDLING of 1.5 million “Eastern Provinces” (Polish) Jews in section V.4. So there obviously were at least that many Jews in Poland at the time – together with the large number still in the ghettos (such as Warsaw) at this particular time (1/43). There were about 3.3 million Jews in Poland at the start of the war (9/39). At most maybe 1/2 million fled to other areas outside Korherr’s “Eastern Provinces”.
The Korherr Report was written for Himmler in early 1943. There was a “long” report of 16 pages and a “short” summary report of 6-1/2 pages (ostensibly for Hitler). Facsimiles of both can be found here:
https://www.ns-archiv.de/verfolgung/korherr/
And both are translated into English at this website:
http://www.holocaustresearchproject.org/holoprelude/korherr.html
This German report on the Jewish population estimated the 1937 European Jewish population to have been about 10.3 million. It estimated that population to have been reduced by about 4.5 million at the time of the report – 4/19/43 for the short report (which was more up to date than the long report). About 2.5 million are interpreted as dead from this report and about 2 million are interpreted as fled to other countries. About 3 million Jews are said to have died from then (early ’43) to the end of the war.
Reinhard Heydrich estimated the European Jewish population of Europe at the Wannsee Conference of January 20, 1942 to have been about 11 million at that time.
The very rough breakdown of Jewish deaths during the war is:
1-2 million shot in the East starting in late ’41
1 million died in the Auschwitz camp complex (most slaughtered in Zyklon gas chambers)
– about 10,000 in ’42, about 350,000 in ’43, and about 450,000 in ’44
About 3/4 million slaughtered with CO in Treblinka (7/42 – 8/43)
About 1/2 million slaughtered with CO in Belzec (3/42 – 6/43)
About 1/4 million slaughtered with CO in Sobibor (5/42 – 10/43)
About 1/8 million slaughtered with CO at Chelmno (12/41 – 4/43)
… etc
Altogether about 5-6 million are said to have died during the war. 2-3 million slaughtered in gas chambers, 1-2 million shot in the East, and the rest died in other ways.
Very very few of these deaths have anything to do with the camp labor system – which is where I see many people confused about what the Holocaust is even said to be! There are very few pictures of any slaughtered Jews. There are very few persons with any first hand knowledge of any of the Jewish slaughters. This is where your average person is confused about what is claimed about the Holocaust. And it is where most are confused in their “denial”.
Now that I think about it, I figured correctly … just missed the fact that the first of the 52 more steps starts at 0.49 NOT -1.49. So I’d end up with -51 + 1 = -50