RSSThe Hollow Men are here indeed –a nation too fat to fight and too stupid to think–
Are you Peter Navarro—Mikey Pompeo or Donald Trump? OR Are you Joe Biden or Kamala?
Really? 2020? Biden received 81,009,468 popular votes to Trump’s 74,111,419. Biden won by 6,898,049 popular votes (9.31% more than Trump’s support ). Biden won 306 electoral votes to Trump’s 232 (a 32% margin of victory).
“Although hardly suggested by our mainstream media, the officially-reported results demonstrated that our 2020 presidential election was extraordinarily close.”
Really? What about Trump’s 2016 victory? Wasn’t that much, much narrower?
“Such an exceptionally narrow [Biden] victory is extremely unusual in modern American history.”
You are not so dumb as you try to present yourself. For the sake of making illusion of intellectual discussion I would be very interested to see analysis of the numbers of counties won as it was mentioned above.
That was the beauty, in part, of the late Larry Auster, may he rest in peace. He pointed out that self-styled conservatives were virtually all liberals. That hadn’t previously occurred to me.
“the pro-man class”?
There’s a lot of good thought in your comment; however, your conclusion seems to contradict it. You argued that everyone will become acquainted with the black behavior that makes integration intolerable, only to then non sequitur that these behaviors (“facts”) will go from being “unmentionable” to “unknown.”
She also misspelled her own daughter’s name as “Olvia.”
She’s also an obsessive and opportunistic racist:
“And last time he was being charged with domestic violence but with his fancy lawyer that charge was dismissed because well why not guess the white fancy judge was not in the mood to tell the white fancy lawyer to tell his white fancy client that he was being charged with 2 felonies instead of one.”
I hope she was really pretty, and/or great in the sack when her husband met her, because Lord knows she has made him suffer since then.
Forgivable if she is French or Latina. Irritating when Anglos do this. I suspect it goes with the rest of her attention seeking personality though.
The thing that irks me the most about that story is the spelling of Edward with a “u”. Who the hell does that?
Actually, rereading the story I have to apologize to her. It seems to me that her husbands name is Eduard. Whatever else she has done, we Unz review commenters cannot blame the woman for naming her son Eduard. Perhaps she has another relative named Olvia.
She also misspelled her own daughter’s name as “Olvia.”
This is really pathetic sophistry on your part. The discussion was about the attempted GTA of a tow truck, yet you bring in napkins and $5 tips. You sound like a tenured, empty professor.
“Aren’t cars readily replaceable?”
No, they’re not. Especially not a tow truck. Letting a mope steal his truck could well have cost the vic his job.
“Are you really authorized to be judge, jury, and executioner, all in the space of a few seconds?”
Absolutely. The space of a few seconds could well be the difference between the vic’s life and death.
“That’s just crazy.”
No, that’s just sane and righteous.
Your problem is that you embrace evil, in the form of your membership in the Brotherhood in Support of Colored Criminals. You are loyal to the perp, because he’s a black criminal, and hostile to the White vic, because he’s a White vic. If the black perp had slaughtered the White vic, you’d have all sorts of excuses ready.
By the way, say her name! Channon Christian. Say his name! Christopher Newsom.
IKR? But aside from that I'm a really nice guy.Not a one of you clowns even began to understand the point, much less engage it. I'll put it here again, in really simple language.
Your problem is that you embrace evil
Where do you draw the line?Replies: @Stan d Mute
Darren J. Beattie, an American political scientist, a former White House official, wrote on Twitter:
“70 + million Americans now effectively Serbs in the 90s”
Thanks so much for your lengthy, thoughtful reply. As for Copland, when you crossed paths with him in the mid-70s, I doubt he would have been much of a conversation partner. If memory serves, Pollock said that he was losing the battle with dementia it by then.
Very symbolic – Aldo Schiavone – ‘Schiavone’ means – ‘Serbs’ and Serbs (including future Polish) founded the city of Rome (originally – Ruma). Etruscans founded the Western civilisation. Spartacus was one of Serbs who in their long history never practiced slavery.
Miracles (supernatural manifestations of faith) happen in all religions. They happen every day in hinduism.Replies: @White Men Can’t Jump, @ViktorTempleton
definitive proof for the existence and divinity of Christ may be found in the many laboratory verified Eucharistic miracles,
Hinduism originated from Aryans (Rg)Vedas. From Vedism evolved in various directions Brahmanism, Mazdaism and Mithraism. Can you pls close the circle – who were Aryans, who made Vedas and what is the link with the topic of this thread? Txs.
The context of this thread can explain enormous anti-Russian hysteria in US, a declaration that (Christian) Orthodoxy is the biggest enemy of the ‘West’, bigger than ISIL, strong support for Bosnian Muslims by American Jews and never seen before in history media satanisation of Serbs, seemingly irrational but enormous constant push for narco-Kosovo to be recognised as an independent state after heavy bombardment, huge investment to prevent Russian ‘maligned’ influence in Balkan. Complementary with this is support to Ecumenical Patriarchate of Constantinople to create artificial Ukrainian Orthodox Church and introduce Orthodox papacy, Soros-Armenia, tolerance of Greek Orthodox Churches which switched to Catholics calendar and because they had few secret agreements with Vatican and support for Vatican Corporation itself so as Protestants which are run as companies with marketing, fluid ‘business’ strategy, modernisation, innovation, stakeholders, PR, etc. The target are Orthodox churches which follow original tenets, do not want to change their service/calendar and not very receptive for outside infiltrations.
Thank you, Eugene Norman, this necessary insight unrefutably persuasive of the inaccuracy of the theory that The Jesus Story is a contrivance by Jews to dupe whitey.
John is writing after the final schism when Christians break away from Jews. This again goes against the idea that Jews created Christianity deliberately. They wouldn’t have written John.
The ‘sole effective method’ is faith in the ‘One, Holy, Catholic and Apostolic Church’. The meaning of ‘Catholic catholicus/ καθολικός (katholikos), is “universal”, coming from the Greek phrase καθόλου (katholou), meaning “on the whole”. The Church is the same in any place, at all times, in any people, because it keeps, and as long as it keeps unaltered (this is the meaning of Orthodoxy- the correct faith) the faith in the tradition (teaching and worship) handed down by the Christ to all the Apostles. The ‘Roman’ Church started a process of alteration of the tradition, opening the gates to Jewish subversion. The ‘correct method’ is preserved nowadays in the Churches who remained Orthodox after the schism of the ‘West’. So, back to Orthodoxy.
While receptive to enlightenment (pun intended) on details in support of those two sentences, there is one point of doctrine unassailable due to the words of God Incarnate Jesus: the prohibition on marrying a different spouse while the original spouse lives (other than the too-close-kinship-exception of Matthew 19:9 in order to avoid harmful inbreeding [note: Jesus didn't say it, Matthew inserted it to address his Hebrew audience in light of the prohibition in the Torah against marriages of too close kinship]).
The ‘Roman’ Church started a process of alteration of the tradition, opening the gates to Jewish subversion. The ‘correct method’ is preserved nowadays in the Churches who remained Orthodox after the schism of the ‘West’. So, back to Orthodoxy.
Not allowed to answer, probably political (in)correctness.
Objects have genders too. So at least in Polish.
Noun genders determine the adjective declination.
“prawda” (truth) is feminine in Polish too.
[Too much off-topic Serbian nonsense. Stop it or most of your future comments will be trashed.]
I found that this text is excellent and explores pretty unknown beginnings of Christianity even some historical things can be questioned. Readers here often cite some historical events not knowing that the 1st millennia period in Europe was heavily falsified mostly by Catholic Church. I found many history falsifications and I may list them in a near dictionary list. How everything is relative we can see in the questioning if St Paul or even Jesus himself existed at all. What we then can say about other things?
My opinion is that the cornerstone of all falsifications was a false migration of Slavic (i.e. Serbs, because the term Slavic still did not exist) to Balkan. In this context, this disguise the fact that the first centuries of Christianity in the Roman Empire was shifted from Rome to today’s Serbia where was the Roman capital Sirmium. All key emperors, who mostly came from military, were of Serbian origins – Diocletian, Constantine, Licinius, Julian, Jovian, later Justin and Justinian. They persecuted Christians, legalised Christianity, suppressed and returned to the paganism, again revived Christianity making it the official religion and later built the biggest church in Constantinople.
Just a brief notice re the Phrygian photo and Mithraism. Phrygians are a Greek reading of Brigi(ans) who were Serbian speaking tribes and came from today’s Montenegro to Asia Minor. Plato wrote that Old Greek language took many words from them. Their recognisable hats can be seen in many ancient pictures and also is reflected in the Venetian Doge’s ceremonial hat.
It is also pretty unknown the fact that the first Christian diocese was established in today’s Serbia (Sirmium) and that St Peter and Paul first visited Serbia before going to Rome where finished as Nero’s victims. The word ‘apostle’ is also Serbian so as the origin of the name Maria (Latin version), Miriam (Jewish version). That Moses got 10 commandments on the Serbian peak (still the same name in Arabic) in Sinai where other peaks also have Serbian name – Nebo (Sky), Banat, etc, what can be seen on the map or travel leaflets from the area. These are just a few indications as visible parts of the icebergs about the things which are suppressed, or which general public doesn’t know.
The ‘truth’ is a feminine gender in Serbian language (‘Istina’) so as in other Slavic languages, e.g. ‘Pravda’ in Russian.
There was not one Greek in Alexander’s dynasty. There was not one Greek tribe in Macedonia, few dozens of Serbian tribes are today Serbian surnames. Alexander’s real name was Lesander, ‘A’ was added by Greeks. The words ‘Hellenic’ and ‘Greek’ (i.e. Grk) are of Serbian origins. Old Greek language was similar to Pelasgian language. I appreciate your opinion/knowledge but read Demosthenes. Maybe the last question in this communication would be – when and where from the future Greeks came to today’s Greece?
Bravo, καλιμέρα, Συγχαρητήρια . Neither one argument nor one contra-argument. Those like Dojkan are in every nation considered as pieces of shееt (i.e. gofna). Enjoy in his smelly company.
Your knowledge is really a sad thing. Bulgars were an Asiatic tribe who came to Europe 1000 years after Alexander. Do you know where Alexander originated from and what is the meaning of his name? Obviously not. Was there ONE Greek in his 500 years long dynasty? What was the name of his birthplace when he was born? I can give you 1000 names of Macedonian places which Serbian names were changed 90 years ago.
Excellent observations. But there are yet worse cases than those who don’t know and care even less. I presented above some obvious things which are hidden by ‘mainstream’. This is a great annoyance for self-hating individuals from the same background and they react very aggressively, simply labelling people without any argument.
@ Dojkan
Which kind of creature are you? A self-hating serb or just an ordinary moron? Have you found one incorrect thing? You have no idea what this is about. If you did not comment other probably would not notice your dumbness.
But R1b existed in Europe much before that, the oldest Haplogroup R1B in the World was found in Europe and is dated 14 000 years. Olalde et al. (2017) trace the spread of haplogroup R1b-M269 in western Europe, particularly Britain, to the spread of the Beaker culture, with a sudden appearance of many R1b-M269 haplogroups in Western Europe ca. 5000–4500 years BP during the early Bronze Age. D’Atanasio et al. (2018) propose that R1b-V88 originated in Europe about 12 000 years ago and crossed to North Africa by about 8000 years ago; it may formerly have been common in southern Europe, where it has since been replaced by waves of other haplogroups, leaving remnant subclades almost exclusively in Sardinia.
They came to EU about 2800BC
Other languages in between.What were the Germans speaking when they fought Rome?
They came to EU about 2800BC but we have English, German and Scandinavian languages formed few hundreds years ago. What was in meantime?
Sanskrit being 2000 years old is doubtful and speculative. There is no written documentary proof of Sanskrit before BC period. The earliest documentary proof of Sanskrit starts after Christ i.e. AD. During Emperor Ashoka's time, we have rock carvings throughout Indian subcontinent all the way to Afghanistan, in Prakrit and Greek but no Sanskrit. Show me one documentary evidence of written Sanskrit from BC period.
So-called Indo-Iranian languages are much younger than 2000BC i.e. than Sanskrit. How nomads could bring sophisticated language, Vedas and culture?
R1b originated in Europe as well. And as far as the R1b/R1a split
You wrote about R1a but Yamnaya people were R1b (future ‘westerners’).
You tell me.Replies: @White Men Can’t Jump
Who lived there between 12000BC and 3000BC when Yamnaya nomads came to Europe? Which language was spoken there?
‘I’ haplogroup is the only haplogroup originated in Europe. I1 (so called Nordic) separated from Vincha’s I2a (so called Dinaric) and moved to the north of EU. R1b was present in Europe before big Yamnaya ‘wave’ btw 3300-2800BC which conducted genocides against indigenous people in Europe. I guess, we concluded that Yamnaya (R1b) were NOT Aryans. And Aryans have ‘Slavic’ genetics. How could Central Asian nomads from Russian steppes could develop proto-language, language and high civilization? The fact is that Serbs (who are proto-Slavics) have the same genetics with Aryan descendants in SAsia and that modern Serbian language is the most similar to Sanskrit (plus mythology and toponyms). How to explain this? It is known only the migration of Gypsies in the 9th c.AC from India to Europe.
English language was formed in the 12th c.AC and German in the 14th c.AC, i.e. more than 3500 years after Sanskrit. What is the link between them? What were the names of these languages in this interim period? Serbian language of I2a Vincha’s people who moved to British Isles and Scandinavia influenced the formation of the Proto-Germanic language.
‘Which language spoke Germans while attacking Roman Empire’. What were mother tongues of Roman Emperors – Diocletian, Constantine, Licinius, Jovian, Justin, Justinian and two dozen others? Which language spoke Aleksandar the Great?
The genetics has confirmed that Aryans and Serbs i.e. Slavics (this term is used since the 7th c.AC) from Scandinavia to Kamchatka and from Arctic to the Golf have the same genetics. Germans and Anglo-Celtics were NOT Aryans. Almost no one think anymore that all those people originated and left India, populated the world and none of them left in India. Who are the native speakers of Sanskrit in India?
There are thousands of linguistic examples, hope I will have time and space to present some. In addition, there is very similar mythology brought in Vedas of Serbs (i.e. Slavics) and Hinduism. There are thousands of Serbian toponyms in S.Asia. Was there any toponym from SAsia brought to Europe? Yamnaya nomads could not bring a sophisticated language and culture to Europe. Btw, there are many Serbian toponyms in British Isles, too. For example, Serbian word MED (honey) is a root for medicine, medication, etc and it is present in about 50 EuroAsian languages. There are many other Serbian words which are present in many languages (e.g. in phonetic – duh, pir, vampire, etc). English word LAND (in phonetic – lend) is a nasal pronunciation of Serbian word LED (ice). I will present this example. This people remember when the ice border in Europe in 8000BC was in today’s Czechoslovakia.
Some signs from the oldest in the world Vincha’s alphabet (swastika is one sign) were present in continuity until today in modern Serbian alphabet, including old Etruscan alphabet, too.
The funniest example is the word – father, pater, padre, etc, which evolved via wrong Greek translation of the Serbian word – bato i.e. brother. It means that the word ‘father’ actually means ‘brother’. More to come, stay cool.
You haven’t answered who were Indo-Europeans. You do not need to be frustrated. If you did it would be easier to make conclusions. You wrote about R1a but Yamnaya people were R1b (future ‘westerners’). Which haplogroups have north Europeans. What’s happened with the ‘Indo-European’ language brought by Yamnaya? They came to EU about 2800BC but we have English, German and Scandinavian languages formed few hundreds years ago. What was in meantime? Neither ‘Balto-Slavic’ nor ‘Soviet’ languages existed 4000 years ago but existed Serbian language from which all ‘Slavic’ languages later developed (first mentioning of Russian name is in the 8th c.AC, other much later).
Why is the Serbian language the most similar to Sanskrit but not surrounding languages – Hungarian, Italian, German, French, Greek, etc? Serbs and other Slavics are mostly R1a+I2a. They were Aryans, not Germans or Anglo-Celtic. So-called Indo-Iranian languages are much younger than 2000BC i.e. than Sanskrit. How nomads could bring sophisticated language, Vedas and culture? How much time was needed for the formation of the ‘proto’ language (‘proto Indo-European’) and after that the ‘real’ (‘Indo-European’) language? Where this happened? Where people lived during the Ice Age?
Lived in Vincha (Iron Gates, Danube, L.Vir, Starcevo). Immediately after the Ice Age, we have urban life in Lepenski Vir and Vincha, high technology, metallurgy, architecture, wheel, trades, fashion, the oldest alphabet, etc. Who lived there between 12000BC and 3000BC when Yamnaya nomads came to Europe? Which language was spoken there?
But R1b existed in Europe much before that, the oldest Haplogroup R1B in the World was found in Europe and is dated 14 000 years. Olalde et al. (2017) trace the spread of haplogroup R1b-M269 in western Europe, particularly Britain, to the spread of the Beaker culture, with a sudden appearance of many R1b-M269 haplogroups in Western Europe ca. 5000–4500 years BP during the early Bronze Age. D’Atanasio et al. (2018) propose that R1b-V88 originated in Europe about 12 000 years ago and crossed to North Africa by about 8000 years ago; it may formerly have been common in southern Europe, where it has since been replaced by waves of other haplogroups, leaving remnant subclades almost exclusively in Sardinia.
They came to EU about 2800BC
Other languages in between.What were the Germans speaking when they fought Rome?
They came to EU about 2800BC but we have English, German and Scandinavian languages formed few hundreds years ago. What was in meantime?
Sanskrit being 2000 years old is doubtful and speculative. There is no written documentary proof of Sanskrit before BC period. The earliest documentary proof of Sanskrit starts after Christ i.e. AD. During Emperor Ashoka's time, we have rock carvings throughout Indian subcontinent all the way to Afghanistan, in Prakrit and Greek but no Sanskrit. Show me one documentary evidence of written Sanskrit from BC period.
So-called Indo-Iranian languages are much younger than 2000BC i.e. than Sanskrit. How nomads could bring sophisticated language, Vedas and culture?
R1b originated in Europe as well. And as far as the R1b/R1a split
You wrote about R1a but Yamnaya people were R1b (future ‘westerners’).
You tell me.Replies: @White Men Can’t Jump
Who lived there between 12000BC and 3000BC when Yamnaya nomads came to Europe? Which language was spoken there?
Exactly. ‘Bichon man’, 14000 years old from Switzerland, was I2a. Forty % of Serbs have this haplogroup (I above mentioned few other I2a people). From Vincha many of them migrated or escaped from genocide (conducted by future ‘westerners’ – Yamnaya people from Russian steppes) to the North Europe (where their genetic cousins, I1, lived), British Isles, Sardinia.
Lithuanian? I know about ‘archaic Lithuanian’ from the 15 c.AC, but not from the 20 c.BC. Who is the joker here? Where were Lithuanians at the time of Alexander the Great or at the time of the Roman Empire? Obviously, you are very behind and you must do a lot of research on your own. If you think to find all this in Wikipedia you are so naïve. I can give you several thousands of Serbian toponyms from Hindustan, Tibet, Central Asia, China. Can you give me any Lithuanian toponym?
If Aryan descendants consist 16% or so (i.e. 220 million) of India’s population is it normal to expect that they brought not only the language (Sanskrit) than thousands of toponyms as well (not speaking about mythology and many other things). Hope, you will catch up, stay tuned. Tagore’s g-g-daughter Alokananda Miter studied Serbian and Slavic languages for 30 years and published papers. R.Tagore was a great friend of Serbian people and visited Serbia couple times. AM found that Serbian and her Bengali are the most similar to Sanskrit.
Aryans were Indo-Europeans from Central Asia/ Ukraine region before they came to India/Persia. Rig Veda might have been written in India after coming here. Now it seems they might have been formed from European hunter gatherers.
Or, something easier for you – who were Aryans? They brought Sanskrit and Rg Veda to India. Were they so-called ‘Indo-Europeans’?
North Indian languages as well as Persian/Dari and Balto Slavic languages.
Which modern language is the most similar to Sanskrit?
It is not meaningless. A common population from Central Asia/Ukraine spread South to Middle East/South Asia to spread new cultures, genes and civilizations.
What is Indo and what is European in this meaningless term?
https://www.unz.com/isteve/heres/#comment-4034736Replies: @White Men Can’t Jump
What was their mythology?
As I expected my questions were not answered. We don’t know who so-called ‘Indo-Europeans’ were. “Common people from Central Asia”?? What is in this ‘Indo’ and what ‘European’ (or ‘Germanishe’)? They brought to SA culture, genes and civilisations. Which CG&C?
But, let see if something is there? Aryans were Indo-Europeans who brought Sanskrit (&Vedas). The mainstream says that Yamnaya people from Russian steppes (future ‘Westerners’) brought IE language to Europe. How come? They were not Aryans but they brought the same language to Europe? We know who are indigenous people in Australia, Americas, Africa, Antarctica, who were indigenous people in Europe?
North Indian languages were derived from Sanskrit but so-called ‘Balto-Slavic’ term did not exist at Aryan times. There were only Serbian speaking tribes and the original ‘IE’ language, which has been making confusion since its inception, was Serbian language. Because we have never-ending quest for elusive IE language and IE people. Modern Serbian is the most similar to Sanskrit (Tagore’s granddaughter found 20% identical and 11% very similar words). From this ancient Serbian language evolved all future so-called ‘Slavic’ languages and it has influenced several thousands of years younger westEU languages and Latin.
In sum, paradoxically you are right – so-called ‘Indo-Europeans’ were white, they brought Sanskrit, their genes, culture and civilisation to SA but they were NOT Yamnaya (i.e. future ‘Westerners’) people. Who were they? It is not difficult to find, there are 200 million of their descendants in SA. It is needed just to replace the meaningless ‘Indo-European’ term with appropriate one.
What are you? an idiot?
As I expected my questions were not answered.
Of course we know who they were.
We don’t know who so-called ‘Indo-Europeans’ were.
Actually Sanskrit is a much much later development, the original language was Prakrit.
Aryans were Indo-Europeans who brought Sanskrit (&Vedas).
They were the same people as the so called Aryans.
How come? They were not Aryans but they brought the same language to Europe?
Most likely Prakrit.
North Indian languages were derived from Sanskrit
So? The people existed.
so-called ‘Balto-Slavic’ term did not exist at Aryan times.
Maybe but the Aryan genetic component in South Asians is related today's NORTH EASTERN EUROPEANS. i.e. Baltic and Northern Slavic people.
was Serbian language
The Yamnaya were the same people as the Aryans.
but they were NOT Yamnaya
Who are the indigenous people of Africa again? Surely not black Africans, there are older Caucasian skulls found in Africa like the Hoffmeyr Skulls then the oldest Negroid skulls 12,000 yrs back. So what you mean by indigenous people of Africa?The so called Aryans were related to the indigenous people of Europe (European hunter gatherers), they were basically a branch of European hunter gatherers who went to the Steppes and turned pastoralists. Aryans invading Europe was a home coming, a return back home.https://2.bp.blogspot.com/-0u2IraQPBV8/Xxbsri0rciI/AAAAAAAAJCs/tRz2C0e4EFoM-oomS1YSWCL6eNcPa4CkQCLcBGAsYHQ/s1600/Ancient_Y-hg_R1a_v2.jpg
We know who are indigenous people in Australia, Americas, Africa, Antarctica, who were indigenous people in Europe?
Or, something easier for you – who were Aryans? They brought Sanskrit and Rg Veda to India. Were they so-called ‘Indo-Europeans’?
I doubt that you can answer any of previous questions. You can try with Wiki but it will not be enough.
More important – you should work on your interpersonal communication.
Aryans were Indo-Europeans from Central Asia/ Ukraine region before they came to India/Persia. Rig Veda might have been written in India after coming here. Now it seems they might have been formed from European hunter gatherers.
Or, something easier for you – who were Aryans? They brought Sanskrit and Rg Veda to India. Were they so-called ‘Indo-Europeans’?
North Indian languages as well as Persian/Dari and Balto Slavic languages.
Which modern language is the most similar to Sanskrit?
It is not meaningless. A common population from Central Asia/Ukraine spread South to Middle East/South Asia to spread new cultures, genes and civilizations.
What is Indo and what is European in this meaningless term?
https://www.unz.com/isteve/heres/#comment-4034736Replies: @White Men Can’t Jump
What was their mythology?
Who were Indo Europeans? Why they were Indo-Germanishe for 100 years before they became Indo-Europeans? Where they originated? Russian steppes? When they came to Europe? Whom they found in Europe? What is Indo and what is European in this meaningless term? How they influenced new European languages? Have they brought Sanskrit to India? Which modern language is the most similar to Sanskrit? What is their (IE) genetics (haplogroup-s)? What is the link btw Sanskrit and English or German if the time distance is more than 3000 years? What was their mythology? Etc, etc…
There is a problem when you falsify history, create a propaganda, and start believing that this is the truth. That is the case with ‘Westerners’, especially, so-called ‘Caucasians’. What does it mean ‘Caucasian’? Today’s ‘Westerners’ (W.Europe, N.America, Australia) mostly originated in Russian steppes and were not white. The oldest civilisations in Europe was Vincha (L.Vir, Danube, Old Europe) civilisation where white race originated. Those, I2 people, moved to the north of Europe and British Isles, where lived for more than 3000 years before R1b (future ‘westerners’) came from the steppes. R1b conducted genocides against indigenous people, killing more than 90% of men. There is also a historical falsification that they brought so-called ‘Indo-European’ (formerly Indo-Germanishe) language from which all Euro and some Asian languages were formed. The truth is that the future ‘Westerners’ mixed with locals, becoming white, and also took their local (for the sake of commenting, let’s call it – Serbian) language. This language was later brought by Aryans to South Asia as Sanskrit. Future ‘Westerners’ came to British Isles about 2500BC. From 100%, the percentage of indigenous I2 dropped to 5%. Some descendants of exterminated I2 are Chuck Norris, Bill Gates, US president Munro, Davy Crocket, Ted Dunson (so as Novak Djokovic and 40% of Serbs). In sum, I2 (Vincha) are indigenous Europeans who were white and spoke (proto)Serbian language (‘race’ is a Serbian word) for 9000 years before R1b came to Europe from Russian steppes. ‘Indo-European’ is a meaningless term.